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k a May Highlights and 2025 AoPS Online Class Information
jlacosta   0
May 1, 2025
May is an exciting month! National MATHCOUNTS is the second week of May in Washington D.C. and our Founder, Richard Rusczyk will be presenting a seminar, Preparing Strong Math Students for College and Careers, on May 11th.

Are you interested in working towards MATHCOUNTS and don’t know where to start? We have you covered! If you have taken Prealgebra, then you are ready for MATHCOUNTS/AMC 8 Basics. Already aiming for State or National MATHCOUNTS and harder AMC 8 problems? Then our MATHCOUNTS/AMC 8 Advanced course is for you.

Summer camps are starting next month at the Virtual Campus in math and language arts that are 2 - to 4 - weeks in duration. Spaces are still available - don’t miss your chance to have an enriching summer experience. There are middle and high school competition math camps as well as Math Beasts camps that review key topics coupled with fun explorations covering areas such as graph theory (Math Beasts Camp 6), cryptography (Math Beasts Camp 7-8), and topology (Math Beasts Camp 8-9)!

Be sure to mark your calendars for the following upcoming events:
[list][*]May 9th, 4:30pm PT/7:30pm ET, Casework 2: Overwhelming Evidence — A Text Adventure, a game where participants will work together to navigate the map, solve puzzles, and win! All are welcome.
[*]May 19th, 4:30pm PT/7:30pm ET, What's Next After Beast Academy?, designed for students finishing Beast Academy and ready for Prealgebra 1.
[*]May 20th, 4:00pm PT/7:00pm ET, Mathcamp 2025 Qualifying Quiz Part 1 Math Jam, Problems 1 to 4, join the Canada/USA Mathcamp staff for this exciting Math Jam, where they discuss solutions to Problems 1 to 4 of the 2025 Mathcamp Qualifying Quiz!
[*]May 21st, 4:00pm PT/7:00pm ET, Mathcamp 2025 Qualifying Quiz Part 2 Math Jam, Problems 5 and 6, Canada/USA Mathcamp staff will discuss solutions to Problems 5 and 6 of the 2025 Mathcamp Qualifying Quiz![/list]
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0 replies
jlacosta
May 1, 2025
0 replies
k i A Letter to MSM
Arr0w   23
N Sep 19, 2022 by scannose
Greetings.

I have seen many posts talking about commonly asked questions, such as finding the value of $0^0$, $\frac{1}{0}$,$\frac{0}{0}$, $\frac{\infty}{\infty}$, why $0.999...=1$ or even expressions of those terms combined as if that would make them defined. I have made this post to answer these questions once and for all, and I politely ask everyone to link this post to threads that are talking about this issue.
[list]
[*]Firstly, the case of $0^0$. It is usually regarded that $0^0=1$, not because this works numerically but because it is convenient to define it this way. You will see the convenience of defining other undefined things later on in this post.

[*]What about $\frac{\infty}{\infty}$? The issue here is that $\infty$ isn't even rigorously defined in this expression. What exactly do we mean by $\infty$? Unless the example in question is put in context in a formal manner, then we say that $\frac{\infty}{\infty}$ is meaningless.

[*]What about $\frac{1}{0}$? Suppose that $x=\frac{1}{0}$. Then we would have $x\cdot 0=0=1$, absurd. A more rigorous treatment of the idea is that $\lim_{x\to0}\frac{1}{x}$ does not exist in the first place, although you will see why in a calculus course. So the point is that $\frac{1}{0}$ is undefined.

[*]What about if $0.99999...=1$? An article from brilliant has a good explanation. Alternatively, you can just use a geometric series. Notice that
\begin{align*}
\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{9}{10^n}&=9\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{10^n}=9\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\biggr(\frac{1}{10}\biggr)^n=9\biggr(\frac{\frac{1}{10}}{1-\frac{1}{10}}\biggr)=9\biggr(\frac{\frac{1}{10}}{\frac{9}{10}}\biggr)=9\biggr(\frac{1}{9}\biggr)=\boxed{1}
\end{align*}
[*]What about $\frac{0}{0}$? Usually this is considered to be an indeterminate form, but I would also wager that this is also undefined.
[/list]
Hopefully all of these issues and their corollaries are finally put to rest. Cheers.

2nd EDIT (6/14/22): Since I originally posted this, it has since blown up so I will try to add additional information per the request of users in the thread below.

INDETERMINATE VS UNDEFINED

What makes something indeterminate? As you can see above, there are many things that are indeterminate. While definitions might vary slightly, it is the consensus that the following definition holds: A mathematical expression is be said to be indeterminate if it is not definitively or precisely determined. So how does this make, say, something like $0/0$ indeterminate? In analysis (the theory behind calculus and beyond), limits involving an algebraic combination of functions in an independent variable may often be evaluated by replacing these functions by their limits. However, if the expression obtained after this substitution does not provide sufficient information to determine the original limit, then the expression is called an indeterminate form. For example, we could say that $0/0$ is an indeterminate form.

But we need to more specific, this is still ambiguous. An indeterminate form is a mathematical expression involving at most two of $0$, $1$ or $\infty$, obtained by applying the algebraic limit theorem (a theorem in analysis, look this up for details) in the process of attempting to determine a limit, which fails to restrict that limit to one specific value or infinity, and thus does not determine the limit being calculated. This is why it is called indeterminate. Some examples of indeterminate forms are
\[0/0, \infty/\infty, \infty-\infty, \infty \times 0\]etc etc. So what makes something undefined? In the broader scope, something being undefined refers to an expression which is not assigned an interpretation or a value. A function is said to be undefined for points outside its domain. For example, the function $f:\mathbb{R}^{+}\cup\{0\}\rightarrow\mathbb{R}$ given by the mapping $x\mapsto \sqrt{x}$ is undefined for $x<0$. On the other hand, $1/0$ is undefined because dividing by $0$ is not defined in arithmetic by definition. In other words, something is undefined when it is not defined in some mathematical context.

WHEN THE WATERS GET MUDDIED

So with this notion of indeterminate and undefined, things get convoluted. First of all, just because something is indeterminate does not mean it is not undefined. For example $0/0$ is considered both indeterminate and undefined (but in the context of a limit then it is considered in indeterminate form). Additionally, this notion of something being undefined also means that we can define it in some way. To rephrase, this means that technically, we can make something that is undefined to something that is defined as long as we define it. I'll show you what I mean.

One example of making something undefined into something defined is the extended real number line, which we define as
\[\overline{\mathbb{R}}=\mathbb{R}\cup \{-\infty,+\infty\}.\]So instead of treating infinity as an idea, we define infinity (positively and negatively, mind you) as actual numbers in the reals. The advantage of doing this is for two reasons. The first is because we can turn this thing into a totally ordered set. Specifically, we can let $-\infty\le a\le \infty$ for each $a\in\overline{\mathbb{R}}$ which means that via this order topology each subset has an infimum and supremum and $\overline{\mathbb{R}}$ is therefore compact. While this is nice from an analytic standpoint, extending the reals in this way can allow for interesting arithmetic! In $\overline{\mathbb{R}}$ it is perfectly OK to say that,
\begin{align*}
a + \infty = \infty + a & = \infty, & a & \neq -\infty \\
a - \infty = -\infty + a & = -\infty, & a & \neq \infty \\
a \cdot (\pm\infty) = \pm\infty \cdot a & = \pm\infty, & a & \in (0, +\infty] \\
a \cdot (\pm\infty) = \pm\infty \cdot a & = \mp\infty, & a & \in [-\infty, 0) \\
\frac{a}{\pm\infty} & = 0, & a & \in \mathbb{R} \\
\frac{\pm\infty}{a} & = \pm\infty, & a & \in (0, +\infty) \\
\frac{\pm\infty}{a} & = \mp\infty, & a & \in (-\infty, 0).
\end{align*}So addition, multiplication, and division are all defined nicely. However, notice that we have some indeterminate forms here which are also undefined,
\[\infty-\infty,\frac{\pm\infty}{\pm\infty},\frac{\pm\infty}{0},0\cdot \pm\infty.\]So while we define certain things, we also left others undefined/indeterminate in the process! However, in the context of measure theory it is common to define $\infty \times 0=0$ as greenturtle3141 noted below. I encourage to reread what he wrote, it's great stuff! As you may notice, though, dividing by $0$ is undefined still! Is there a place where it isn't? Kind of. To do this, we can extend the complex numbers! More formally, we can define this extension as
\[\mathbb{C}^*=\mathbb{C}\cup\{\tilde{\infty}\}\]which we call the Riemann Sphere (it actually forms a sphere, pretty cool right?). As a note, $\tilde{\infty}$ means complex infinity, since we are in the complex plane now. Here's the catch: division by $0$ is allowed here! In fact, we have
\[\frac{z}{0}=\tilde{\infty},\frac{z}{\tilde{\infty}}=0.\]where $\tilde{\infty}/\tilde{\infty}$ and $0/0$ are left undefined. We also have
\begin{align*}
z+\tilde{\infty}=\tilde{\infty}, \forall z\ne -\infty\\
z\times \tilde{\infty}=\tilde{\infty}, \forall z\ne 0
\end{align*}Furthermore, we actually have some nice properties with multiplication that we didn't have before. In $\mathbb{C}^*$ it holds that
\[\tilde{\infty}\times \tilde{\infty}=\tilde{\infty}\]but $\tilde{\infty}-\tilde{\infty}$ and $0\times \tilde{\infty}$ are left as undefined (unless there is an explicit need to change that somehow). One could define the projectively extended reals as we did with $\mathbb{C}^*$, by defining them as
\[{\widehat {\mathbb {R} }}=\mathbb {R} \cup \{\infty \}.\]They behave in a similar way to the Riemann Sphere, with division by $0$ also being allowed with the same indeterminate forms (in addition to some other ones).
23 replies
Arr0w
Feb 11, 2022
scannose
Sep 19, 2022
k i Marathon Threads
LauraZed   0
Jul 2, 2019
Due to excessive spam and inappropriate posts, we have locked the Prealgebra and Beginning Algebra threads.

We will either unlock these threads once we've cleaned them up or start new ones, but for now, do not start new marathon threads for these subjects. Any new marathon threads started while this announcement is up will be immediately deleted.
0 replies
LauraZed
Jul 2, 2019
0 replies
k i Basic Forum Rules and Info (Read before posting)
jellymoop   368
N May 16, 2018 by harry1234
f (Reminder: Do not post Alcumus or class homework questions on this forum. Instructions below.) f
Welcome to the Middle School Math Forum! Please take a moment to familiarize yourself with the rules.

Overview:
[list]
[*] When you're posting a new topic with a math problem, give the topic a detailed title that includes the subject of the problem (not just "easy problem" or "nice problem")
[*] Stay on topic and be courteous.
[*] Hide solutions!
[*] If you see an inappropriate post in this forum, simply report the post and a moderator will deal with it. Don't make your own post telling people they're not following the rules - that usually just makes the issue worse.
[*] When you post a question that you need help solving, post what you've attempted so far and not just the question. We are here to learn from each other, not to do your homework. :P
[*] Avoid making posts just to thank someone - you can use the upvote function instead
[*] Don't make a new reply just to repeat yourself or comment on the quality of others' posts; instead, post when you have a new insight or question. You can also edit your post if it's the most recent and you want to add more information.
[*] Avoid bumping old posts.
[*] Use GameBot to post alcumus questions.
[*] If you need general MATHCOUNTS/math competition advice, check out the threads below.
[*] Don't post other users' real names.
[*] Advertisements are not allowed. You can advertise your forum on your profile with a link, on your blog, and on user-created forums that permit forum advertisements.
[/list]

Here are links to more detailed versions of the rules. These are from the older forums, so you can overlook "Classroom math/Competition math only" instructions.
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What belongs on this forum?
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Mathcounts and how to learn

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Marathons!
Relays might be a better way to describe it, but these threads definitely go the distance! One person starts off by posting a problem, and the next person comes up with a solution and a new problem for another user to solve. Here's some of the frequently active marathons running in this forum:
[list][*]Algebra
[*]Prealgebra
[*]Proofs
[*]Factoring
[*]Geometry
[*]Counting & Probability
[*]Number Theory[/list]
Some of these haven't received attention in a while, but these are the main ones for their respective subjects. Rather than starting a new marathon, please give the existing ones a shot first.

You can also view marathons via the Marathon tag.

Think this list is incomplete or needs changes? Let the mods know and we'll take a look.
368 replies
jellymoop
May 8, 2015
harry1234
May 16, 2018
Find all sequences satisfying two conditions
orl   35
N 10 minutes ago by wangyanliluke
Source: IMO Shortlist 2007, C1, AIMO 2008, TST 1, P1
Let $ n > 1$ be an integer. Find all sequences $ a_1, a_2, \ldots a_{n^2 + n}$ satisfying the following conditions:
\[ \text{ (a) } a_i \in \left\{0,1\right\} \text{ for all } 1 \leq i \leq n^2 + n;
\]

\[ \text{ (b) } a_{i + 1} + a_{i + 2} + \ldots + a_{i + n} < a_{i + n + 1} + a_{i + n + 2} + \ldots + a_{i + 2n} \text{ for all } 0 \leq i \leq n^2 - n.
\]
Author: Dusan Dukic, Serbia
35 replies
orl
Jul 13, 2008
wangyanliluke
10 minutes ago
Gcd of N and its coprime pair sum
EeEeRUT   20
N 14 minutes ago by Adywastaken
Source: EGMO 2025 P1
For a positive integer $N$, let $c_1 < c_2 < \cdots < c_m$ be all positive integers smaller than $N$ that are coprime to $N$. Find all $N \geqslant 3$ such that $$\gcd( N, c_i + c_{i+1}) \neq 1$$for all $1 \leqslant i \leqslant m-1$

Here $\gcd(a, b)$ is the largest positive integer that divides both $a$ and $b$. Integers $a$ and $b$ are coprime if $\gcd(a, b) = 1$.

Proposed by Paulius Aleknavičius, Lithuania
20 replies
EeEeRUT
Apr 16, 2025
Adywastaken
14 minutes ago
geometry problem with many circumcircles
Melid   0
17 minutes ago
Source: own
In scalene triangle $ABC$, which doesn't have right angle, let $O$ be its circumcenter. Circle $BOC$ intersects $AB$ and $AC$ at $A_{1}$ and $A_{2}$ for the second time, respectively. Similarly, circle $COA$ intersects $BC$ and $BA$ at $B_{1}$ and $B_{2}$, and circle $AOB$ intersects $CA$ and $CB$ at $C_{1}$ and $C_{2}$ for the second time, respectively. Let $O_{1}$ and $O_{2}$ be circumcenters of triangle $A_{1}B_{1}C_{1}$ and $A_{2}B_{2}C_{2}$, respectively. Prove that $O, O_{1}, O_{2}$ are collinear.
0 replies
Melid
17 minutes ago
0 replies
interesting geo config (2/3)
Royal_mhyasd   2
N 22 minutes ago by Ilikeminecraft
Source: own
Let $\triangle ABC$ be an acute triangle and $H$ its orthocenter. Let $P$ be a point on the parallel through $A$ to $BC$ such that $\angle APH = |\angle ABC-\angle ACB|$. Define $Q$ and $R$ as points on the parallels through $B$ to $AC$ and through $C$ to $AB$ similarly. If $P,Q,R$ are positioned around the sides of $\triangle ABC$ as in the given configuration, prove that $P,Q,R$ are collinear.
2 replies
Royal_mhyasd
Yesterday at 11:36 PM
Ilikeminecraft
22 minutes ago
Worst math problems
LXC007   49
N 3 hours ago by Craftybutterfly
What is the most egregiously bad problem or solution you have encountered in school?
49 replies
LXC007
May 21, 2025
Craftybutterfly
3 hours ago
A Variety of Math Problems to solve
FJH07   48
N 3 hours ago by EthanNg6
Hi, so people can post different math problems that they think are hard, and I will post some (I think middle school math level) problems so that the community can help solve them. :)
48 replies
FJH07
May 22, 2025
EthanNg6
3 hours ago
Worst Sillies of All Time
pingpongmerrily   61
N 3 hours ago by shaayonsamanta
Share the worst sillies you have ever made!

Mine was probably on the 2024 MathCounts State Target Round Problem 8, where I wrote my answer as a fraction instead of a percent, which cost me a trip to Nationals that year.
61 replies
pingpongmerrily
Friday at 12:34 PM
shaayonsamanta
3 hours ago
AMC 8 info
VivaanKam   5
N 3 hours ago by shaayonsamanta
Hi I will be attending the AMC 8 contest in 2026. How does it work? time? number of questions? points? scoring?
5 replies
VivaanKam
5 hours ago
shaayonsamanta
3 hours ago
MathDash help
Spacepandamath13   11
N 4 hours ago by Yiyj
AkshajK ORZ by the way invited me to do MathDash a few months ago and I did try it one day but haven't done it much after (Sorry). Now, I'm getting back into it and finding the format kind of weird. When selecting certain problem type sometimes it lets me pick immediately, other times not. Any fixes?
11 replies
Spacepandamath13
May 29, 2025
Yiyj
4 hours ago
Challenge: Make every number to 100 using 4 fours
CJB19   274
N 5 hours ago by AllenHou
I've seen this attempted a lot but I want to see if the AoPS community can actually do it. Using ONLY 4 fours and math operations, make as many numbers as you can. Try to go in order. I'll start:
$$(4-4)*4*4=0$$$$4-4+4/4=1$$$$4/4+4/4=2$$$$(4+4+4)/4=3$$$$4+(4-4)*4=4$$$$4+4^{4-4}=5$$$$4!/4+4-4=6$$$$4+4-4/4=7$$$$4+4+4-4=8$$
274 replies
CJB19
May 15, 2025
AllenHou
5 hours ago
DHR Amc8?
imsuper   139
N 5 hours ago by Moon_settler
What do yall think the DHR this year will be? Will 22 be enough?
139 replies
imsuper
Jan 30, 2025
Moon_settler
5 hours ago
Combo Bash
DhruvJha   5
N Yesterday at 11:01 PM by EthanNg6
Devin and Cowen are playing a game where they take turns flipping a biased coin. The coin lands on heads with probability 2/3 and tails with probability 1/3. Devin goes first. On each turn, the current player flips the coin repeatedly until the coin lands tails. For each heads flipped, the player gains 1 point and continues flipping. If the coin lands tails, their turn ends, and the other player takes their turn. The first player to reach 3 points wins the game immediately. What is the probability that Devin wins the game? Express your answer as a common fraction in lowest terms.
5 replies
DhruvJha
May 27, 2025
EthanNg6
Yesterday at 11:01 PM
SOLVE: CDR style problem quick algebra
ryfighter   6
N Yesterday at 10:40 PM by EthanNg6
It takes 3 people 10 minutes to mow 2 lawns. How many minutes will it take for 2 people to mow 10 lawns? Express your answer in hours as a decimal.

$(A)$ $1.25$
$(B)$ $75$
$(C)$ $01.025$
$(D)$ $1.5$
$(E)$ $15.25$
6 replies
ryfighter
Yesterday at 3:19 AM
EthanNg6
Yesterday at 10:40 PM
Fun challange problem :)
TigerSenju   32
N Yesterday at 10:19 PM by maxamc
Scenario:

Master Alchemist Aurelius is renowned for his mastery of elemental fusion. He works with seven fundamental, yet mysterious, elements: Ignis (Fire), Aqua (Water), Terra (Earth), Aer (Air), Lux (Light), Umbra (Shadow), and Aether (Spirit). Each element possesses a unique 'potency' value, a positive integer crucial for his most complex fusions

Aurelius has lost his master log of these potencies. All he has left are seven cryptic scrolls, each containing a precise relationship between the potencies of various elements. He needs these values to complete his Grand Device. Can you help him deduce the exact potency of each element?

The Elements and Their Potencies:

Let I represent the potency of Ignis (Fire).
Let A represent the potency of Aqua (Water).
Let T represent the potency of Terra (Earth).
Let R represent the potency of Aer (Air).
Let L represent the potency of Lux (Light).
Let U represent the potency of Umbra (Shadow).
Let E represent the potency of Aether (Spirit).
The Cryptic Scrolls (System of Equations):

Aurelius's scrolls reveal the following relationships:

The combined potency of Ignis, Aqua, and Terra is equal to the potency of Aer plus Lux, plus a constant of two.

If you sum the potencies of Aqua and Umbra, it precisely equals the sum of Lux and Aether, minus one.

The sum of Terra and Aer potencies is the same as the sum of Ignis, Aqua, and Aether potencies, minus one.

Three times the potency of Ignis, plus the potency of Aer, is equal to the sum of Aqua, Terra, and Aether potencies, plus five.

The difference between Lux and Ignis potencies is identical to the difference between Umbra and Aqua potencies.

The sum of Umbra and Aether potencies, when decreased by the potency of Terra, results in twice the potency of Aqua.

The potency of Ignis added to Lux, minus the potency of Aer, is equivalent to the potency of Aether minus Umbra, plus one.

The Grand Challenge:

Using only the information from the cryptic scrolls, set up and solve the system of seven linear equations to determine the unique positive integer potency value for each of the seven elements: I,A,T,R,L,U,E.

good luck, and whoever finds the potencies first, gets a title of The SYSTEMS OF EQUATIONS MASTER

p.s. Yes, I did just come up with a whole story of words to make a ridiculously long problem, but hey, you're reading this, so you probably have nothing better to be doing. ;)
32 replies
TigerSenju
May 18, 2025
maxamc
Yesterday at 10:19 PM
Disjoint Pairs
MithsApprentice   42
N May 10, 2025 by endless_abyss
Source: USAMO 1998
Suppose that the set $\{1,2,\cdots, 1998\}$ has been partitioned into disjoint pairs $\{a_i,b_i\}$ ($1\leq i\leq 999$) so that for all $i$, $|a_i-b_i|$ equals $1$ or $6$. Prove that the sum \[ |a_1-b_1|+|a_2-b_2|+\cdots +|a_{999}-b_{999}|  \] ends in the digit $9$.
42 replies
MithsApprentice
Oct 9, 2005
endless_abyss
May 10, 2025
Disjoint Pairs
G H J
Source: USAMO 1998
The post below has been deleted. Click to close.
This post has been deleted. Click here to see post.
MithsApprentice
2390 posts
#1 • 7 Y
Y by nmd27082001, mathematicsy, Adventure10, megarnie, HWenslawski, Mango247, ItsBesi
Suppose that the set $\{1,2,\cdots, 1998\}$ has been partitioned into disjoint pairs $\{a_i,b_i\}$ ($1\leq i\leq 999$) so that for all $i$, $|a_i-b_i|$ equals $1$ or $6$. Prove that the sum \[ |a_1-b_1|+|a_2-b_2|+\cdots +|a_{999}-b_{999}|  \] ends in the digit $9$.
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paladin8
3237 posts
#2 • 5 Y
Y by vsathiam, Richangles, Adventure10, HWenslawski, Mango247
WLOG, we may assume $a_i > b_i$ or we can just switch $a_i$ and $b_i$.

So the sum just becomes $\sum a_i - \sum b_i$.

But we know $\sum a_i + \sum b_i = \frac{1998 \cdot 1999}{2} = 999 \cdot 1999$ is odd.

So $\sum a_i - \sum b_i$ is odd as well.

Since $\sum a_i - \sum b_i$ is the sum of $999$ $1$'s or $6$'s and is odd, we know there must be an even number of $6$'s. Let $2x$ be the number of $6$'s.

Then $\sum a_i - \sum b_i = 6(2x)+1(999-2x) = 10x + 999 \equiv 9 \pmod{10}$ as desired. QED.
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by paladin8, Dec 18, 2005, 10:14 PM
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zabelman
1072 posts
#3 • 1 Y
Y by Adventure10
Assume WLOG that $6=b_1-a_1=\cdots=b_k-a_k$ and $1=b_{k+1}-a_{k+1}=\cdots=b_n-a_n$. For $i,j\le k$, we say that $\{a_j,b_j\}$ links onto $\{a_i,b_i\}$ if $\{a_i,b_i\}$ if $a_i<a_j<b_i<b_j$ or $a_j<a_i<b_j<b_i$.

Since pair $\{a_i,b_i\}$ links onto$\{a_j,b_j\}$ if and only if $\{a_j,b_j\}$ links onto $\{a_i,b_i\}$, there are an even number of ordered pairs of integers $(i,j)$ such that pair $j$ links onto pair $i$.

For a given $i\le k$, there are an odd number of integers between $a_i$ and $b_i$, so the number of pairs that link onto$\{a_i,b_i\}$ is odd. Thus, the total number of ordered pairs of integers $(i,j)$ such that pair $j$ links onto pair $i$ is congruent to
\[ \sum_{i=1}^k(\text{number of pairs that link onto pair \textit{i}}) \equiv \sum_{i=1}^k 1\equiv k \bmod 2.  \] Therefore, since we already know that this number is even, we find that $k$ is even, and the value of the given sum is
\[ 6k+(999-k) = 999+5k\equiv 9\bmod10.  \]
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Aneo.
1111 posts
#4 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
Take the equation modulo 5. Then the sum is $ 999\cdot 1\equiv4\pmod{5}$. As shown above, the equation is odd, so the sum must be 9 mod 10.
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Arvind_sn
524 posts
#5 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
Here is one proof. I do not think it's very well written, especially the lemma (did I even need a lemma??) but here it is. (Sorry, I also didn't know how to make the congruence sign, and I was in a hurry, so I just put equal signs.)

lemma

main proof
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thecmd999
2860 posts
#6 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
Solution
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codyj
723 posts
#7 • 3 Y
Y by vsathiam, Adventure10, Mango247
Solution by codyj and ithinksomuch
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AnonymousBunny
339 posts
#8 • 1 Y
Y by Adventure10
Solution
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Wave-Particle
3690 posts
#9 • 1 Y
Y by Adventure10
Solution
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vsathiam
201 posts
#10 • 2 Y
Y by Delray, Adventure10
Ok my sol was overkill:
Here are the two lemmas. First has been proved by many of above solutions, second is true by construction. (just need to describe it nicely.")

proof sketch
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by vsathiam, Aug 26, 2017, 1:13 PM
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Delray
348 posts
#11 • 2 Y
Y by vsathiam, Adventure10
Let $k$ of the differences be six, and let the rest be one. Let $A$, $B$, and $C$ denote the number of even-even, even-odd, and odd-odd pairs. Clearly, there are $B+2A=999$ evens, hence $B$ is odd. It follows that $k$ is even, so $5k+999\equiv 9 \mod 10$ as desired. $\square$
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star32
165 posts
#12 • 2 Y
Y by Mathematicsislovely, Mango247
Solution
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v_Enhance
6882 posts
#13 • 7 Y
Y by HamstPan38825, Lcz, son7, mathematicsy, ike.chen, math31415926535, Mango247
Let $S$ be the sum. Modulo $2$, \[ S = \sum |a_i-b_i| \equiv \sum (a_i+b_i) 	= 1 + 2 + \dots + 1998 \equiv 1 \pmod 2. \]Modulo $5$, \[ S = \sum |a_i-b_i| = 1 \cdot 999 \equiv 4 \pmod 5. \]So $S \equiv 9 \pmod{10}$.
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SenorIncongito
307 posts
#14
Y by
I had the same solution as @above, but I couldn't get the $1$ modulo $2$ part. Why can we add the numbers like that? (I don't really get the $1+2+...+1998$ part).
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GeronimoStilton
1521 posts
#15
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@above It's because $x\equiv -x\pmod{2}$ for all integers $x$, so $|a_i-b_i|\equiv a_i-b_i\pmod{2}$ regardless of whether $a_i\ge b_i$.
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HamstPan38825
8872 posts
#16
Y by
Mod 5, the expression is obviously 4 mod 5. Now observe that $$|a_1-b_1| \equiv a_1+b_1 \pmod 2,$$implying the desired sum is congruent to $$\sum_{i=1}^{1998} i \equiv 1 \pmod 2.$$Combining gives the result.
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asdf334
7585 posts
#17 • 3 Y
Y by Math4Life2020, channing421, math31415926535
WLOG let $a_i>b_i$ and let $a_i-b_i=d_i$. Then $d_i$ equals $1$ or $6$, and we only need to show that $$\sum_{i=1}^{999}d_i\equiv 1\pmod 2.$$Notice that $$\sum_{i=1}^{999}d_i+2\sum_{i=1}^{999}b_i=\sum_{i=1}^{999}a_i+\sum_{i=1}^{999}b_i\equiv 1\pmod 2,$$and we are done. $\blacksquare$
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Tafi_ak
309 posts
#18
Y by
The number $6$ comes 'even-even' or 'odd-odd'. We claim that the number of $6$'s must be even. If odd then we get greater than $999$ odd or even number, this is a contradiction because $\{1,2,\cdots 1998\}$ have $999$ even and $999$ odd. So
\begin{eqnarray*}
\sum _{i=1}^{999} |a_i-b_i|=6\times 2k+1\times(999-2k)\equiv 10k+999\equiv 9 \hspace{6mm} \text{(mod 10)}
\end{eqnarray*}
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by Tafi_ak, Apr 5, 2022, 8:21 AM
Reason: typo
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math31415926535
5617 posts
#20
Y by
By CRT, we can break this into $\pmod{2}$ and $\pmod{5}.$ For $\pmod{2},$ note that $$|a_1-b_1| \equiv a_1+b_1 \pmod{2},$$since absolute value doesn't matter in $\pmod{2}.$ So our sum is just $1+2+...+1998 \equiv 1 \pmod{2}.$ For $\pmod{5},$ just notice that its always $1\pmod{5}$ for all of $|a_1-b_1|, |a_2-b_2|, ...$ so our answer is just $4\pmod{5}.$ Using CRT, we get an answer of $9\pmod{10}.$ $\blacksquare$
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by math31415926535, Dec 17, 2021, 3:41 AM
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th1nq3r
146 posts
#21
Y by
Note that $|a - b| \equiv a - b \equiv a + b \pmod 2$ for all integers $a, b$.

The original sum then becomes $$|a_1 - b_1| + \cdots + |a_{999} - b_{999}| \equiv a_1 + b_1 + \cdots + a_{999} + b_{999} = 1 + \cdots + 1998 \equiv 1 \pmod 2. $$
Now we have that the sum $$|a_1 - b_1| + \cdots + |a_{999} - b_{999}| \equiv \underbrace{1 + \cdots + 1}_{\text{999 times}} = 999 \equiv 4 \pmod 5. $$
Hence this sum is $1 \pmod 2$ and $4 \pmod 5$, so by CRT we have that the sum is $9 \pmod {10}$, as desired. $\blacksquare$
This post has been edited 4 times. Last edited by th1nq3r, Aug 13, 2022, 5:03 AM
Reason: So many edits from the phone
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Alcumusgrinder07
95 posts
#22
Y by
We will consider the sum mod 2 and mod 5 we see that since $6\equiv 1\pmod 2$ the sum of 999 terms has a remainder of 1 when divided by 2 similarly we see that $6\equiv1\pmod 5$ so the sum of 999 terms has a remainder of 4 when divided by 5 so by CRT we see that the sum has a remainder of 9 when divided by 10 which implies that the units digit is 9
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minusonetwelth
225 posts
#23
Y by
Let the sum be $S$. Note that $S\equiv 999\cdot 1\mod 5\Longleftrightarrow S\equiv 4\mod 5$. Also note that $S$ has the same parity as $a_1+b_1+a_2+b_2+\ldots+a_{999}+b_{999}=1+\ldots+1998$ which clearly odd, so $S\equiv 1\mod 2$. Hence the remainder of $S\mod 10$ is unique by the Chinese Remainder Theorem, and it is easy to check that it is $9$ indeed.
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minusonetwelth
225 posts
#24
Y by
Alcumusgrinder07 wrote:
We will consider the sum mod 2 and mod 5 we see that since $6\equiv 1\pmod 2$ the sum of 999 terms has a remainder of 1 when divided by 2 similarly we see that $6\equiv1\pmod 5$ so the sum of 999 terms has a remainder of 4 when divided by 5 so by CRT we see that the sum has a remainder of 9 when divided by 10 which implies that the units digit is 9

$6\equiv 1\mod 2$???
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Taco12
1757 posts
#25
Y by
Note that the expression is $4 \pmod 5$, so it suffices to show that it is odd. But notice that we have $$\left|a_i-b_i\right| \equiv a_i-b_i \pmod 2,$$and we have $1+2+3+\dots+1998 \equiv 1 \pmod 2$, which finishes.
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by Taco12, Jan 15, 2023, 4:23 PM
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RedFireTruck
4243 posts
#26
Y by
Since $1$ and $6$ differ by $5$, the ending digit is $9$ whenever there is an odd number of $i$ such that $|a_i-b_i|=1$ and is $4$ otherwise. There are $999$ odds and $999$ evens so there can't be an even number of $i$ such that $|a_i-b_i|=1$, because that would imply an even number of odds and an even number of evens. Therefore, the ending digit must be $9$.
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egg185
103 posts
#27
Y by
MithsApprentice wrote:
Suppose that the set $\{1,2,\cdots, 1998\}$ has been partitioned into disjoint pairs $\{a_i,b_i\}$ ($1\leq i\leq 999$) so that for all $i$, $|a_i-b_i|$ equals $1$ or $6$. Prove that the sum \[ |a_1-b_1|+|a_2-b_2|+\cdots +|a_{999}-b_{999}|  \]ends in the digit $9$.

my teach gimme that as homework
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This post has been edited 3 times. Last edited by egg185, Aug 4, 2023, 6:37 AM
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shendrew7
799 posts
#28
Y by
Suppose there are $x$ pairs with difference $1$. Then our sum is \[(999-x)+6x = 999+5x,\]which has units digit either $4$ or $9$.

Note that this sum also has the same parity as $1 + 2 + \ldots + 1998$, which is odd, since \[\lvert a_i - b_i \rvert \equiv a_i - b_i \equiv a_i + b_i \mod 2.\]
Thus our sum has units digit $9$. $\blacksquare$
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gracemoon124
872 posts
#29 • 1 Y
Y by salemath
Clearly, the desired sum is $4\pmod 5$, so it remains to show that it’s $1\pmod 2$.

Because $|a-b|\equiv a-b\equiv a+b\pmod 2$ for any integers $a$ and $b$, this means
\[|a_1-b_1|+|a_2-b_2|+\dots+|a_{999}-b_{999}|\equiv 1+2+\dots + 1998\equiv 1\pmod 2\]and we are done. $\square$
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mathmax12
6051 posts
#30
Y by
We note that this sum is $\equiv 4\pmod{5},$ we need to prove that this is $1 \pmod{2},$ note that $|a-b|,$ has the same parity as $a+b,$ so we need to prove $a+b \equiv 1\pmod{2},$ so $|a_1-b_1|+|a_2-b_2|+\cdots +|a_{999}-b_{999}|  \equiv 1+2+3...+1998 \equiv 1\pmod{2},$ hence proved $\blacksquare$
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joshualiu315
2534 posts
#31
Y by
WLOG assume $a_i>b_i$ for each $i$.

Notice that

\[\sum a_i + \sum b_i = 999 \cdot 1999,\]
which is odd. Thus, in order to have integer values, we must have that $\sum a_i - \sum b_i$ is odd. Thus, the number of $6$'s, denote as $2k$, is even. We have

\[\sum a_i - \sum b_1 = 6 \cdot 2k + (999-2k) = 10k+999 \equiv 9 \pmod{10}. \ \square\]
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kamatadu
481 posts
#32 • 1 Y
Y by GeoKing
WLOG $a_i>b_i$ for all $i$.

Now note that,
\[ \displaystyle\sum |a_i-b_i| = \displaystyle\sum a_i - b_i \equiv \displaystyle\sum a_i + b_i = \dfrac{1998\cdot 1999}{2} \equiv 1 \pmod{2}. \]
Also,
\[ \displaystyle\sum a_i - b_i \equiv \displaystyle\sum 1 = 999 \equiv 4 \pmod{5}. \]
Thus combining these by CRT, we get that $\displaystyle\sum |a_i-b_i| \equiv 9 \pmod{10}$. :yoda:
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SouradipClash_03
166 posts
#33 • 1 Y
Y by GeoKing
Cute.
Solution
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LogiBobb
8 posts
#35 • 1 Y
Y by OronSH
$|a_i - b_i| = 1$ or $6$. Say $|a_i - b_i| = 1$ for $k$ of these $999$ pairs. The sum would then be equal to $k + 6(999 - k) = 5994 - 5k$. Note that a pair with difference $6$ has same parity and a pair with difference $1$ does not. All pairs of difference $6$ would give us an even number of even numbers and an even number of odd numbers. If $k$ was even, that suggests there are even numbers of odd numbers and even numbers of even numbers. However, since there is a total of $999$ even numbers and $999$ odd numbers, this cannot be true. So thus, $k$ is odd, and the sum would end with digit $9$.
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bjump
1035 posts
#36
Y by
solution
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by bjump, Jan 7, 2024, 4:00 PM
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think4l
344 posts
#37
Y by
Overkill solution, but proud of it :play_ball:

For the sake of simplicity, we will write all pairs $\{a_i, b_i\}$ such that $a_i < b_i$.

Let there be $x$ six-pairs $(a_i, b_i)$ such that $|a_i - b_i|=6$. Then, there are $999-x$ one-pairs such that $|a_i - b_i| = 1$. The given expression evaluates to $$6x + (999-x) = 5x + 999$$For this to be $9 \pmod{10}$, it suffices to show that $x$ is even.

Note that along with any six-pair $(n, n+6)$, in order to make successful pairings, we must have either exactly one of the six-pairs $$(n+1, n+7), (n+3, n+9), (n+5, n+11),$$or one of the following sets of three six-pairs $$\{(n+1, n+7), (n+2, n+8), (n+3, n+9)\}$$$$\{(n+1, n+7), (n+2, n+8), (n+5, n+11)\}$$$$\{(n+1, n+7), (n+4, n+10), (n+5, n+11)\}$$
Each option generates an even number of six-pairs, so $x$ is even, as desired $\blacksquare$
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AshAuktober
1013 posts
#38
Y by
Modulo 2, $$ |a_1-b_1|+|a_2-b_2|+\cdots +|a_{999}-b_{999}| \equiv a_1 + \cdots + a_{999} + b_1 + \cdots + b_{999}$$$$= \frac{1998 \cdot 1999}{2} \equiv 1 \pmod{2}.$$Note that $|a_i - b_i| \equiv 1 \pmod{5} \forall i$, so $$ |a_1-b_1|+|a_2-b_2|+\cdots +|a_{999}-b_{999}| \equiv 1 + \cdots + 1 \equiv 999 \equiv 4 \pmod{5}.$$Now from the Chinese Remainder Theorem, $ |a_1-b_1|+|a_2-b_2|+\cdots +|a_{999}-b_{999}| \equiv 9 \pmod{10}$. $\square$
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gladIasked
648 posts
#39
Y by
We see that each $|a_i-b_i|\equiv 1\pmod 5$, and $999\equiv 4\pmod 5$, so $|a_1-b_1|+|a_2-b_2|+\dotsb +|a_{999}-b_{999}|\equiv 4\pmod 5$. Note that the $|a_i-b_i|\equiv a_i+b_i\pmod 2$, so $|a_1-b_1|+|a_2-b_2|+\dotsb +|a_{999}-b_{999}|\equiv \frac{1998\cdot 1999}{2}\equiv 1\pmod 2$. Thus, $|a_1-b_1|+|a_2-b_2|+\dotsb +|a_{999}-b_{999}|\equiv 9\pmod {10}$. $\blacksquare$
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megarnie
5611 posts
#40
Y by
Since each $|a_i - b_i|$ is $1\pmod 5$, the sum is clearly $4\pmod 5$. It suffices to show that the sum is odd. Clearly the absolute value when taking the parity, so the sum has the same parity as $\sum a_i - \sum b_i$. Let $x = \sum a_i$. We have $\sum (a_i + b_i) = \sum a_i + \sum b_i =  1 + 2 + \cdots + 1998$ is odd, so $\sum b_i$ has the opposite parity of $\sum a_i$, implying that $\sum a_i - \sum b_i$ is odd, as desired.
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megahertz13
3194 posts
#41
Y by
It is clear that $$|a_1-b_1|+|a_2-b_2|+\dotsb +|a_{999}-b_{999}|\equiv 4\pmod 5.$$The only thing left is to prove that $$|a_1-b_1|+|a_2-b_2|+\dotsb +|a_{999}-b_{999}|\equiv 1\pmod 2.$$However, $$|a_1-b_1|+|a_2-b_2|+\dotsb +|a_{999}-b_{999}|$$$$\equiv a_1-b_1+a_2-b_2+\dots+a_{999}-b_{999}$$$$\equiv a_1+b_1+a_2+b_2+\dots+a_{999}+b_{999}$$$$=\frac{1998\cdot 1999}{2}$$$$\equiv 1\pmod 2.$$
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Maximilian113
575 posts
#42
Y by
Let there be $x$ pairs that sum to $6,$ and $y$ pairs that sum to $1.$ Then $x+y=999 \implies 6x+y \equiv 4 \pmod 5.$ Meanwhile, if WLOG $a_i > b_i$ for all $i,$ then our sum equals $$1998 \cdot 1999/2 - 2\sum b_i \equiv 1 \pmod 2,$$so by CRT it ends in the digit $9,$ so we are done. QED
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quantam13
125 posts
#43
Y by
Call the sum $X$. Since the sum of all the numbers from 1 to 1998 is odd, $X$ is odd and hence it suffices to prove the $X\equiv 4$ modulo 5. But that is trivial since there are 999 terms in the sum, each of which are 1 modulo 5.
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NerdyNashville
18 posts
#44
Y by
Solution
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endless_abyss
69 posts
#45
Y by
Nice!

Claim: $\sum | a_i - b_i | \equiv 1$ (mod $2$)
$\sum | a_i - b_i | \equiv \sum a_i + b_i \equiv 1$ (mod $2$)
so the claim is proven.

Claim: $\sum | a_i - b_i | \equiv -1$ (mod $5$)
If there are x number of $|a_i - b_i| = 6 \equiv 1$ (mod $5$)
there are $999 - x$ $|a_i - b_i$
such that
$Ia_i - b_i| = 1 \equiv 1$ (mod $5$)
we're done after summing them up.

combining the two claims gives us $\sum | a_i - b_i | \equiv -1$ (mod $10$) as desired.

$\square$
:starwars:
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