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k a April Highlights and 2025 AoPS Online Class Information
jlacosta   0
Apr 2, 2025
Spring is in full swing and summer is right around the corner, what are your plans? At AoPS Online our schedule has new classes starting now through July, so be sure to keep your skills sharp and be prepared for the Fall school year! Check out the schedule of upcoming classes below.

WOOT early bird pricing is in effect, don’t miss out! If you took MathWOOT Level 2 last year, no worries, it is all new problems this year! Our Worldwide Online Olympiad Training program is for high school level competitors. AoPS designed these courses to help our top students get the deep focus they need to succeed in their specific competition goals. Check out the details at this link for all our WOOT programs in math, computer science, chemistry, and physics.

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April 9th (Webinar), 4:00pm PT/7:00pm ET, Learn about Video-based Summer Camps at the Virtual Campus
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[*]April 22nd (Webinar), 4:00pm PT/7:00pm ET, Competitive Programming at AoPS (USACO).[/list]
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0 replies
jlacosta
Apr 2, 2025
0 replies
k i A Letter to MSM
Arr0w   23
N Sep 19, 2022 by scannose
Greetings.

I have seen many posts talking about commonly asked questions, such as finding the value of $0^0$, $\frac{1}{0}$,$\frac{0}{0}$, $\frac{\infty}{\infty}$, why $0.999...=1$ or even expressions of those terms combined as if that would make them defined. I have made this post to answer these questions once and for all, and I politely ask everyone to link this post to threads that are talking about this issue.
[list]
[*]Firstly, the case of $0^0$. It is usually regarded that $0^0=1$, not because this works numerically but because it is convenient to define it this way. You will see the convenience of defining other undefined things later on in this post.

[*]What about $\frac{\infty}{\infty}$? The issue here is that $\infty$ isn't even rigorously defined in this expression. What exactly do we mean by $\infty$? Unless the example in question is put in context in a formal manner, then we say that $\frac{\infty}{\infty}$ is meaningless.

[*]What about $\frac{1}{0}$? Suppose that $x=\frac{1}{0}$. Then we would have $x\cdot 0=0=1$, absurd. A more rigorous treatment of the idea is that $\lim_{x\to0}\frac{1}{x}$ does not exist in the first place, although you will see why in a calculus course. So the point is that $\frac{1}{0}$ is undefined.

[*]What about if $0.99999...=1$? An article from brilliant has a good explanation. Alternatively, you can just use a geometric series. Notice that
\begin{align*}
\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{9}{10^n}&=9\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{10^n}=9\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\biggr(\frac{1}{10}\biggr)^n=9\biggr(\frac{\frac{1}{10}}{1-\frac{1}{10}}\biggr)=9\biggr(\frac{\frac{1}{10}}{\frac{9}{10}}\biggr)=9\biggr(\frac{1}{9}\biggr)=\boxed{1}
\end{align*}
[*]What about $\frac{0}{0}$? Usually this is considered to be an indeterminate form, but I would also wager that this is also undefined.
[/list]
Hopefully all of these issues and their corollaries are finally put to rest. Cheers.

2nd EDIT (6/14/22): Since I originally posted this, it has since blown up so I will try to add additional information per the request of users in the thread below.

INDETERMINATE VS UNDEFINED

What makes something indeterminate? As you can see above, there are many things that are indeterminate. While definitions might vary slightly, it is the consensus that the following definition holds: A mathematical expression is be said to be indeterminate if it is not definitively or precisely determined. So how does this make, say, something like $0/0$ indeterminate? In analysis (the theory behind calculus and beyond), limits involving an algebraic combination of functions in an independent variable may often be evaluated by replacing these functions by their limits. However, if the expression obtained after this substitution does not provide sufficient information to determine the original limit, then the expression is called an indeterminate form. For example, we could say that $0/0$ is an indeterminate form.

But we need to more specific, this is still ambiguous. An indeterminate form is a mathematical expression involving at most two of $0$, $1$ or $\infty$, obtained by applying the algebraic limit theorem (a theorem in analysis, look this up for details) in the process of attempting to determine a limit, which fails to restrict that limit to one specific value or infinity, and thus does not determine the limit being calculated. This is why it is called indeterminate. Some examples of indeterminate forms are
\[0/0, \infty/\infty, \infty-\infty, \infty \times 0\]etc etc. So what makes something undefined? In the broader scope, something being undefined refers to an expression which is not assigned an interpretation or a value. A function is said to be undefined for points outside its domain. For example, the function $f:\mathbb{R}^{+}\cup\{0\}\rightarrow\mathbb{R}$ given by the mapping $x\mapsto \sqrt{x}$ is undefined for $x<0$. On the other hand, $1/0$ is undefined because dividing by $0$ is not defined in arithmetic by definition. In other words, something is undefined when it is not defined in some mathematical context.

WHEN THE WATERS GET MUDDIED

So with this notion of indeterminate and undefined, things get convoluted. First of all, just because something is indeterminate does not mean it is not undefined. For example $0/0$ is considered both indeterminate and undefined (but in the context of a limit then it is considered in indeterminate form). Additionally, this notion of something being undefined also means that we can define it in some way. To rephrase, this means that technically, we can make something that is undefined to something that is defined as long as we define it. I'll show you what I mean.

One example of making something undefined into something defined is the extended real number line, which we define as
\[\overline{\mathbb{R}}=\mathbb{R}\cup \{-\infty,+\infty\}.\]So instead of treating infinity as an idea, we define infinity (positively and negatively, mind you) as actual numbers in the reals. The advantage of doing this is for two reasons. The first is because we can turn this thing into a totally ordered set. Specifically, we can let $-\infty\le a\le \infty$ for each $a\in\overline{\mathbb{R}}$ which means that via this order topology each subset has an infimum and supremum and $\overline{\mathbb{R}}$ is therefore compact. While this is nice from an analytic standpoint, extending the reals in this way can allow for interesting arithmetic! In $\overline{\mathbb{R}}$ it is perfectly OK to say that,
\begin{align*}
a + \infty = \infty + a & = \infty, & a & \neq -\infty \\
a - \infty = -\infty + a & = -\infty, & a & \neq \infty \\
a \cdot (\pm\infty) = \pm\infty \cdot a & = \pm\infty, & a & \in (0, +\infty] \\
a \cdot (\pm\infty) = \pm\infty \cdot a & = \mp\infty, & a & \in [-\infty, 0) \\
\frac{a}{\pm\infty} & = 0, & a & \in \mathbb{R} \\
\frac{\pm\infty}{a} & = \pm\infty, & a & \in (0, +\infty) \\
\frac{\pm\infty}{a} & = \mp\infty, & a & \in (-\infty, 0).
\end{align*}So addition, multiplication, and division are all defined nicely. However, notice that we have some indeterminate forms here which are also undefined,
\[\infty-\infty,\frac{\pm\infty}{\pm\infty},\frac{\pm\infty}{0},0\cdot \pm\infty.\]So while we define certain things, we also left others undefined/indeterminate in the process! However, in the context of measure theory it is common to define $\infty \times 0=0$ as greenturtle3141 noted below. I encourage to reread what he wrote, it's great stuff! As you may notice, though, dividing by $0$ is undefined still! Is there a place where it isn't? Kind of. To do this, we can extend the complex numbers! More formally, we can define this extension as
\[\mathbb{C}^*=\mathbb{C}\cup\{\tilde{\infty}\}\]which we call the Riemann Sphere (it actually forms a sphere, pretty cool right?). As a note, $\tilde{\infty}$ means complex infinity, since we are in the complex plane now. Here's the catch: division by $0$ is allowed here! In fact, we have
\[\frac{z}{0}=\tilde{\infty},\frac{z}{\tilde{\infty}}=0.\]where $\tilde{\infty}/\tilde{\infty}$ and $0/0$ are left undefined. We also have
\begin{align*}
z+\tilde{\infty}=\tilde{\infty}, \forall z\ne -\infty\\
z\times \tilde{\infty}=\tilde{\infty}, \forall z\ne 0
\end{align*}Furthermore, we actually have some nice properties with multiplication that we didn't have before. In $\mathbb{C}^*$ it holds that
\[\tilde{\infty}\times \tilde{\infty}=\tilde{\infty}\]but $\tilde{\infty}-\tilde{\infty}$ and $0\times \tilde{\infty}$ are left as undefined (unless there is an explicit need to change that somehow). One could define the projectively extended reals as we did with $\mathbb{C}^*$, by defining them as
\[{\widehat {\mathbb {R} }}=\mathbb {R} \cup \{\infty \}.\]They behave in a similar way to the Riemann Sphere, with division by $0$ also being allowed with the same indeterminate forms (in addition to some other ones).
23 replies
Arr0w
Feb 11, 2022
scannose
Sep 19, 2022
k i Marathon Threads
LauraZed   0
Jul 2, 2019
Due to excessive spam and inappropriate posts, we have locked the Prealgebra and Beginning Algebra threads.

We will either unlock these threads once we've cleaned them up or start new ones, but for now, do not start new marathon threads for these subjects. Any new marathon threads started while this announcement is up will be immediately deleted.
0 replies
LauraZed
Jul 2, 2019
0 replies
k i Basic Forum Rules and Info (Read before posting)
jellymoop   368
N May 16, 2018 by harry1234
f (Reminder: Do not post Alcumus or class homework questions on this forum. Instructions below.) f
Welcome to the Middle School Math Forum! Please take a moment to familiarize yourself with the rules.

Overview:
[list]
[*] When you're posting a new topic with a math problem, give the topic a detailed title that includes the subject of the problem (not just "easy problem" or "nice problem")
[*] Stay on topic and be courteous.
[*] Hide solutions!
[*] If you see an inappropriate post in this forum, simply report the post and a moderator will deal with it. Don't make your own post telling people they're not following the rules - that usually just makes the issue worse.
[*] When you post a question that you need help solving, post what you've attempted so far and not just the question. We are here to learn from each other, not to do your homework. :P
[*] Avoid making posts just to thank someone - you can use the upvote function instead
[*] Don't make a new reply just to repeat yourself or comment on the quality of others' posts; instead, post when you have a new insight or question. You can also edit your post if it's the most recent and you want to add more information.
[*] Avoid bumping old posts.
[*] Use GameBot to post alcumus questions.
[*] If you need general MATHCOUNTS/math competition advice, check out the threads below.
[*] Don't post other users' real names.
[*] Advertisements are not allowed. You can advertise your forum on your profile with a link, on your blog, and on user-created forums that permit forum advertisements.
[/list]

Here are links to more detailed versions of the rules. These are from the older forums, so you can overlook "Classroom math/Competition math only" instructions.
Posting Guidelines
Update on Basic Forum Rules
What belongs on this forum?
How do I write a thorough solution?
How do I get a problem on the contest page?
How do I study for mathcounts?
Mathcounts FAQ and resources
Mathcounts and how to learn

As always, if you have any questions, you can PM me or any of the other Middle School Moderators. Once again, if you see spam, it would help a lot if you filed a report instead of responding :)

Marathons!
Relays might be a better way to describe it, but these threads definitely go the distance! One person starts off by posting a problem, and the next person comes up with a solution and a new problem for another user to solve. Here's some of the frequently active marathons running in this forum:
[list][*]Algebra
[*]Prealgebra
[*]Proofs
[*]Factoring
[*]Geometry
[*]Counting & Probability
[*]Number Theory[/list]
Some of these haven't received attention in a while, but these are the main ones for their respective subjects. Rather than starting a new marathon, please give the existing ones a shot first.

You can also view marathons via the Marathon tag.

Think this list is incomplete or needs changes? Let the mods know and we'll take a look.
368 replies
jellymoop
May 8, 2015
harry1234
May 16, 2018
Parallelograms and concyclicity
Lukaluce   30
N 27 minutes ago by ohiorizzler1434
Source: EGMO 2025 P4
Let $ABC$ be an acute triangle with incentre $I$ and $AB \neq AC$. Let lines $BI$ and $CI$ intersect the circumcircle of $ABC$ at $P \neq B$ and $Q \neq C$, respectively. Consider points $R$ and $S$ such that $AQRB$ and $ACSP$ are parallelograms (with $AQ \parallel RB, AB \parallel QR, AC \parallel SP$, and $AP \parallel CS$). Let $T$ be the point of intersection of lines $RB$ and $SC$. Prove that points $R, S, T$, and $I$ are concyclic.
30 replies
+1 w
Lukaluce
Apr 14, 2025
ohiorizzler1434
27 minutes ago
tangent circles
parmenides51   3
N 39 minutes ago by ihategeo_1969
Source: 2019 Geo Mock - Olympiad by Tovi Wen #5 https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/c594864h1787237p11805928
Let $ABC$ be an acute triangle with orthocenter $H$, and let $D$ denote the foot of the altitude from $B$ to $\overline{AC}$. Let the circle $\Omega$ with diameter $\overline{BC}$ intersect altitude $\overline{AH}$ at distinct points $X$ and $Y$. Suppose that the circle with center $C$ passing through point $X$ intersects segment $\overline{BD}$ at $L$. Line $\overline{CL}$ meets $\Omega$ at $P \neq C$. If $\overline{PX}$ intersects $\overline{AL}$ at $R$, and $\overline{PY}$ intersects $\overline{AL}$ at $S$, prove that $\Omega$ is tangent to the circumcircle of $\triangle DRS$.
3 replies
parmenides51
Nov 26, 2023
ihategeo_1969
39 minutes ago
Primes that divide a³-3a+1
rodamaral   28
N 2 hours ago by Ilikeminecraft
Source: Question 6 - Brazilian Mathematical Olympiad 2017
6. Let $a$ be a positive integer and $p$ a prime divisor of $a^3-3a+1$, with $p \neq 3$. Prove that $p$ is of the form $9k+1$ or $9k-1$, where $k$ is integer.
28 replies
rodamaral
Dec 7, 2017
Ilikeminecraft
2 hours ago
Sum-free multiplicative group mod p can be arbitrarily large
v_Enhance   25
N 2 hours ago by Ilikeminecraft
Source: USA January TST for the 55th IMO 2014
For a prime $p$, a subset $S$ of residues modulo $p$ is called a sum-free multiplicative subgroup of $\mathbb F_p$ if
$\bullet$ there is a nonzero residue $\alpha$ modulo $p$ such that $S = \left\{ 1, \alpha^1, \alpha^2, \dots \right\}$ (all considered mod $p$), and
$\bullet$ there are no $a,b,c \in S$ (not necessarily distinct) such that $a+b \equiv c \pmod p$.
Prove that for every integer $N$, there is a prime $p$ and a sum-free multiplicative subgroup $S$ of $\mathbb F_p$ such that $\left\lvert S \right\rvert \ge N$.

Proposed by Noga Alon and Jean Bourgain
25 replies
v_Enhance
Apr 28, 2014
Ilikeminecraft
2 hours ago
0!??????
wizwilzo   50
N Yesterday at 6:45 PM by wipid98
why is 0! "1" ??!
50 replies
wizwilzo
Jul 6, 2016
wipid98
Yesterday at 6:45 PM
Bogus Proof Marathon
pifinity   7580
N Yesterday at 6:44 PM by MathWinner121
Hi!
I'd like to introduce the Bogus Proof Marathon.

In this marathon, simply post a bogus proof that is middle-school level and the next person will find the error. You don't have to post the real solution :P

Use classic Marathon format:
[hide=P#]a1b2c3[/hide]
[hide=S#]a1b2c3[/hide]


Example posts:

P(x)
-----
S(x)
P(x+1)
-----
Let's go!! Just don't make it too hard!
7580 replies
pifinity
Mar 12, 2018
MathWinner121
Yesterday at 6:44 PM
Weird Similarity
mithu542   0
Yesterday at 6:03 PM
Is it just me or are the 2023 national sprint #21 and 2025 state target #4 strangely similar?
[quote=2023 Natioinal Sprint #21] A right triangle with integer side lengths has perimeter $N$ feet and area $N$ ft^2. What is the arithmetic mean of all possible values of $N$?[/quote]
[quote=2025 State Target #4]Suppose a right triangle has an area of 20 cm^2 and a perimeter of 40 cm. What is
the length of the hypotenuse, in centimeters?[/quote]
0 replies
mithu542
Yesterday at 6:03 PM
0 replies
An algebra math problem
AVY2024   6
N Yesterday at 6:03 PM by Roger.Moore
Solve for a,b
ax-2b=5bx-3a
6 replies
AVY2024
Apr 8, 2025
Roger.Moore
Yesterday at 6:03 PM
easy olympiad problem
kjhgyuio   5
N Yesterday at 6:01 PM by Roger.Moore
Find all positive integer values of \( x \) such that
\[
\sqrt{x - 2011} + \sqrt{2011 - x} + 10
\]is an integer.
5 replies
kjhgyuio
Thursday at 2:00 PM
Roger.Moore
Yesterday at 6:01 PM
Mathcounts Nationals Roommate Search
iwillregretthisnamelater   37
N Yesterday at 6:00 PM by MathWinner121
Does anybody want to be my roommate at nats? Every other qualifier in my state is female. :sob:
Respond quick pls i gotta submit it in like a couple of hours.
37 replies
iwillregretthisnamelater
Mar 31, 2025
MathWinner121
Yesterday at 6:00 PM
EaZ_Shadow
Apr 6, 2025
derekwang2048
Yesterday at 5:26 PM
Math and AI 4 Girls
mkwhe   20
N Yesterday at 3:58 PM by fishchips
Hey everyone!

The 2025 MA4G competition is now open!

Apply Here: https://xmathandai4girls.submittable.com/submit


Visit https://www.mathandai4girls.org/ to get started!

Feel free to PM or email mathandai4girls@yahoo.com if you have any questions!
20 replies
mkwhe
Apr 5, 2025
fishchips
Yesterday at 3:58 PM
k real math problems
Soupboy0   60
N Yesterday at 2:12 PM by Soupboy0
Ill be posting questions once in a while. Here's the first question:

What fraction of numbers from $1$ to $1000$ have the digit $7$ and are divisible by $3$?
60 replies
Soupboy0
Mar 25, 2025
Soupboy0
Yesterday at 2:12 PM
simplify inequality
ngelyy   9
N Yesterday at 3:35 AM by ngelyy
$\frac{24x}{21}+\frac{35x}{49}-\frac{x}{2}$
9 replies
ngelyy
Yesterday at 2:59 AM
ngelyy
Yesterday at 3:35 AM
Connected graph with k edges
orl   26
N Apr 16, 2025 by Maximilian113
Source: IMO 1991, Day 2, Problem 4, IMO ShortList 1991, Problem 10 (USA 5)
Suppose $ \,G\,$ is a connected graph with $ \,k\,$ edges. Prove that it is possible to label the edges $ 1,2,\ldots ,k\,$ in such a way that at each vertex which belongs to two or more edges, the greatest common divisor of the integers labeling those edges is equal to 1.

Note: Graph-Definition. A graph consists of a set of points, called vertices, together with a set of edges joining certain pairs of distinct vertices. Each pair of vertices $ \,u,v\,$ belongs to at most one edge. The graph $ G$ is connected if for each pair of distinct vertices $ \,x,y\,$ there is some sequence of vertices $ \,x = v_{0},v_{1},v_{2},\cdots ,v_{m} = y\,$ such that each pair $ \,v_{i},v_{i + 1}\;(0\leq i < m)\,$ is joined by an edge of $ \,G$.
26 replies
orl
Nov 11, 2005
Maximilian113
Apr 16, 2025
Connected graph with k edges
G H J
Source: IMO 1991, Day 2, Problem 4, IMO ShortList 1991, Problem 10 (USA 5)
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orl
3647 posts
#1 • 3 Y
Y by Adventure10, megarnie, GeoKing
Suppose $ \,G\,$ is a connected graph with $ \,k\,$ edges. Prove that it is possible to label the edges $ 1,2,\ldots ,k\,$ in such a way that at each vertex which belongs to two or more edges, the greatest common divisor of the integers labeling those edges is equal to 1.

Note: Graph-Definition. A graph consists of a set of points, called vertices, together with a set of edges joining certain pairs of distinct vertices. Each pair of vertices $ \,u,v\,$ belongs to at most one edge. The graph $ G$ is connected if for each pair of distinct vertices $ \,x,y\,$ there is some sequence of vertices $ \,x = v_{0},v_{1},v_{2},\cdots ,v_{m} = y\,$ such that each pair $ \,v_{i},v_{i + 1}\;(0\leq i < m)\,$ is joined by an edge of $ \,G$.
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by orl, Aug 15, 2008, 1:51 PM
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Peter
3615 posts
#2 • 4 Y
Y by Wizard_32, Adventure10, Mango247, GeoKing
Click to reveal hidden text

Start at any vertex A and number 1,2,3,... along any path. every vertex you pass will have edges k,k+1 so has gcd=1, until you reach a dead end. (which is either a vertex with degree 1 (no prob) or a vertex on which all edges are labeled yet (no prob). Now if there are unlabeled edges left, start at any vertex of such an edge, and repeat the procedure. Like that you can fill the graph such that all vertices have gcd(edges)=1.

remark
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perfect_radio
2607 posts
#3 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
Can I make a small remark? It's kind of late now, maybe I'm missing something obvious.

Small (Redundant) Remark
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Peter
3615 posts
#4 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
I don't see your point... where would I use non-randomness? Note that we are labeling edges, not vertices.

Either a vertex has only one edge (in which case there's nothing to prove), or either there are at least 2, and by the algorithm we will ever run through it and make that vertex thus have at least 2 coprime edges.
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tim1234133
523 posts
#5 • 1 Y
Y by Adventure10
I don't think this is the point that perfect_radio is making, but anyway... I don't see where your proof uses connectivity. When we have gone through the first set of labelling, you say that if there are unlabelled edges (Sorry about the typo that was here...) 'start at any vertex of such an edge'. How do we know that this vertex (the one we start on the second time we make a path) has gcd(edges)=1?
Can we get round this by saying 'start at a vertex that has some already labelled vertices', and hence use the fact that the graph is connected? Or am I just missing something altogether?
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by tim1234133, Aug 25, 2006, 7:22 PM
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JBL
16123 posts
#6 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
tim1234133 wrote:
I don't think this is the point that perfect_radio is making, but anyway... I don't see where your proof uses connectivity. When we have gone through the first set of labelling, you say that if there are unlabelled vertices 'start at any vertex of such an edge'. How do we know that this vertex (the one we start on the second time we make a path) has gcd(edges)=1?
Can we get round this by saying 'start at a vertex that has some already labelled vertices', and hence use the fact that the graph is connected? Or am I just missing something altogether?

"Start at a vertex that has already labelled edges" is what he meant. Such a vertex exists by connectivity.
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Peter
3615 posts
#7 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
[here was a wrong idea, thx tim1234133.]

For the rest of your remark, tim1234133, I will say it again: we are labeling edges, NOT vertices. If it was only a typo please reformulate your question in the right way as there are many interpretations possible.
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by Peter, Aug 25, 2006, 7:35 PM
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tim1234133
523 posts
#8 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
How do we label the (unconnected) graph formed of two unconnected triangles (If we call the vertices A-F we have A connected to B and C with B and C also connected to each other, and D connected to E and F with E and F connected to each other) in the required manner?
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Peter
3615 posts
#9 • 1 Y
Y by Adventure10
Err... never mind, we really need connectedness indeed. :oops:
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perfect_radio
2607 posts
#10 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
Yes, that was also my point. It's too bad I couldn't explain it in a more understandable manner :(
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GoldenFrog1618
667 posts
#11 • 1 Y
Y by Adventure10
I will induct on the number of edges and keep the number of verticies fixed.

For a base case, we need to prove that all trees can be labeled. Notice that there is a path between all the verticies of degree >=2. Thus, we should label these edges in order 1,2,3,4 ..., n. (Include the two edges connected to a vertex of degree 1).
Call vertex with no edges labeled "unlabeled" since any permutation of the labels will work.
Note that there are only 2 labeled degree one verticies.

Now we progressively add edges to the graph until we get the desired number of edges.

Case 1: A vertex of degree >=2 connected to a vertex of degree >=2.
There is nothing needed to be done.
Case 2: An unlabeled vertex of degree 1 connected to a vertex of degree >=2.
Label the new edge and the unlabeled edge two consectutive numbers.
Case 3: An unlabeled vertex of degree 1 connected to an unlabeled vertex of degree 1.
Label the two unlabeled edges and the new edge three consecutive numbers.
Case 4: A labeled vertex of degree 1 connected to a vertex of degree >=2.
Label this new edge either n+1 if the label is n or keep it unlabeled if the label is 1.
Case 5: A labled vertex of degree 1 connected to a labeled vertex of degree 1.
Label the connection n+1.
Case 6: A labeled vertex of degree 1 connected to an unlabeled vertex of degree 1.
If the labled edge is n, label the two edges n+1 and n+2 (increase other edges if necessary).
If the labled edge is 1, label the two edges consecutive numbers.

Notice that there are at most two instances of connecting a labeled vertex to another vertex, so we are done.
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shekast-istadegi
81 posts
#12 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
This is easy probelm_hint_>we are doing the graph Euler Garlic by Connect odd edges of the graph and we use induaction.
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Generic_Username
1088 posts
#13 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
wrong
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by Generic_Username, Jan 4, 2017, 6:11 PM
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dgrozev
2460 posts
#14 • 3 Y
Y by Generic_Username, Adventure10, Mango247
It's not so trivial. Suppose, we have 4 vertices: $a,b,c,d$ s.t. $\{b,c,d\}$ are connected with each other and $a$ is connected only with $b$. Following the above, we label $ab$ as $1$; $bc, bd$ as $2$ and $3$ respectively and $cd$ as 4. Look at the vertex $c$, its edges are labeled as $2,4$ !?
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yayups
1614 posts
#15 • 1 Y
Y by Adventure10
Not 100\% sure if this works, but here it is.

It suffices to have two adjacent labels at every vertex. Consider the path of maximum length. Label its edges consecutively, and then color all the edges red. Now, consider the maximum length path in non-red edges and repeat. Call path $k$ the maximum length path that we chose on the $k$th iteration. We claim that this works.

Note that all vertices that are not on the ends of any paths are automatically taken care of. The only potential issue is that there could be some vertex $v$ that is always only on the end of paths. If $v$ has degree $1$. then this isn't actually a problem. So suppose $v$ has degree at least $2$. It only appears on the end of paths, so there exist $i,j$ such that $v$ is on an end of path $i$ and path $j$ (WLOG $i<j$). But then, gluing together paths $i$ and $j$ results in a path of longer length at stage $i$ (all of path $j$ is still not red since it was not red at stage $j$). One possible issue is that if paths $i$ and $j$ also share their other respective ends, but this can easily solved by deleting one edge in the cycle that's formed when we glued them (still leads to a longer path on stage $i$). Therefore, we must have $\mathrm{deg}v=1$, so every vertex now has two adjacent labels adjacent to it.

EDIT: This is wrong, consider a cycle. I will try to fix soon...
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by yayups, Sep 1, 2018, 4:28 PM
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MathStudent2002
934 posts
#16 • 4 Y
Y by cosmicgenius, AlastorMoody, Adventure10, Mango247
Epic problem. Solution with ewan.

Say all degrees are even. Then, we have an Eulerian circuit, which we just label $1, 2, \ldots, k$ in succession. Then, each vertex is labeled either with 2 consecutive integers or with $1$ and $k$ (or both) so we are done.

Else, consider the graph $G'$ where we add edges to $G$ between pairs of odd-degree vertices. Then, $G'$ has an Eulerian circuit. Removing the added edges from the circuit turns it into a set of walks with union $E(G)$ such that each walk starts and ends at odd-degree vertices and each odd-degree is the endpoint of exactly one walk.

Now, if the walks have lengths $k_1, \ldots, k_m$, then label the first one with $[1, k_1]$ in order, the second one with $[k_1+1, k_1+k_2]$, etc., and the last one with $[k_1+\cdots+k_{m-1}+1, k_1+\cdots+k_m]$. We see that each non-leaf vertex must appear in the interior (i.e. non-endpoint) of some walk and thus have two edges labeled with consecutive numbers, and hence have $\gcd$ of edge labels equal to one. $\blacksquare$
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dgrozev
2460 posts
#17 • 1 Y
Y by Adventure10
MathStudent2002 wrote:
...Now, if the walks have lengths $k_1, \ldots, k_m$, then label the first one with $[1, k_1]$ in order, the second one with $[k_1+1, k_1+k_2]$, etc., and the last one with $[k_1+\cdots+k_{m-1}+1, k_1+\cdots+k_m]$. We see that each non-leaf vertex must appear in the interior (i.e. non-endpoint) of some walk and thus have two edges labeled with consecutive numbers, and hence have $\gcd$ of edge labels equal to one. $\blacksquare$

What if the second walk, for example, begins and ends to one and the same vertex? So you assign $k_1+1$ and $k_1+k_2$ to those first and last edges and of course the may not be coprime.
I know it can be patched somehow, but then that idea of Euler cycles will lost its originality and it would be dissolved into something like in post #2.
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Pathological
578 posts
#18 • 1 Y
Y by Adventure10
I think what he/she is doing in the third paragraph is the following.

Let $v_1, v_2, \cdots, v_{2t}$ be the vertices of odd degree of $G$ (there's an even number of them by the Handshake Lemma, say). If $t = 0$, then simply take an Eulerian cycle and label the edges $1, 2, \cdots, k$ in order. Otherwise, we will add the edges $v_1v_2, v_3v_4, \cdots, v_{2t-1} v_{2t}.$ Let this modified graph be $G'.$ Note that this may result in the graph not being simple anymore, but that's fine since the problem still holds. Now, observe that $G'$ has all degree evens, and hence contains an Eulerian cycle. Then, it's clear that the removal of $v_1v_2, v_3v_4, \cdots, v_{2t-1} v_{2t}$ from the cycle would partition the cycle into walks from $v_2$ to $v_3$, from $v_4$ to $v_5$, $\cdots$, from $v_{2t}$ to $v_1.$ This makes it such that none of the walks can be cycles since the $v_i$'s are distinct, and so we finish as above.

Edit: Also, as far as I can tell, the idea in post #2 does not work, since it does not account for cycles (what if the walk ends at the same vertex it began with, and we label the edges $2, 3, 4$?). The solution in post #16, on the other hand, obviates the possibility of cycles using the odd degree trick.
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by Pathological, Jun 20, 2019, 11:12 PM
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SnowPanda
186 posts
#19 • 2 Y
Y by hakN, jelena_ivanchic
Solution
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vsamc
3788 posts
#20
Y by
Solution
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HamstPan38825
8857 posts
#21 • 1 Y
Y by chenghaohu
The idea here is that fixing two edges around a vertex essentially makes it work, so we can work greedily.

Call a vertex valid if we have labeled two edges through it with relatively prime indices. It suffices to make all vertices valid.

Consider the longest walk in $G$, and label the edges along this walk in the order $1, 2, \dots, k$ consecutively. By maximality of the walk, every vertex in the walk (including the endpoints) is now valid; now, consider the subgraph $G'$ formed by removing all edges and any leaves in the walk, and continue the process until all edges are exhausted.
This post has been edited 2 times. Last edited by HamstPan38825, Aug 2, 2023, 3:05 PM
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thdnder
194 posts
#22 • 2 Y
Y by Upwgs_2008, taki09
An inductive solution.
Let $G = (V,E)$. We induct on $|V|$, assuming $|V| \geq 3$. Assume the problem statement is true on all connected graph with the number of vertices less than $|V|$. Since $G$ is connected, let $T$ be the spanning tree of $G$. Let $v$ be a leaf of $T$. Then $G-v$ is still connected, so by the induction hypothesis, we can label the edges of $G-v$ satisfying the problem condition. Let $\deg v = s$. Then if $s \geq 2$, $\gcd(k, k-1, \dots, k-s+1) = 1$ so labeling the remaining edges in arbitrary order will be satisfying the condition. Thus we're done.
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by thdnder, Dec 29, 2023, 11:48 AM
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kamatadu
476 posts
#23 • 3 Y
Y by GeoKing, channing421, taki09
We induct with the base case being clearly true.

If $G$ has a cycle and the cycle is connected to some other component, then there is a vertex with $\ge 3$ degree.

Now remove an edge from this vertex thus breaking the cycle but the graph still remaining connected. Then by our induction hypothesis, we can get a number of the edges using $1,\ldots, k-1$.

Now, after removing the edge, we note taht the gcd of the vertex $=1$. So adding back the removed edge, the $\gcd$ would still be $=1$.

Now if the graph has only a cycle (i.e. $G$ has $k$ edges and $k$ vertices as shown below).
https://i.imgur.com/bslnMTq.png

Then we can just number the edges in an increasing order by $1$.

Otherwise, if $G$ is a tree, then also we can pick a path between the leaves of the tree and label the edges in a increasing order and also the subtrees in a similar increasing by $1$ order. It is easy to see that this works.
https://i.imgur.com/QCzuiz8.png
:yoda:
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lelouchvigeo
179 posts
#24 • 1 Y
Y by taki09
Sketch of the solution
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renrenthehamster
40 posts
#25 • 1 Y
Y by taki09
If you are familiar with depth first search (DFS) algorithm, simply perform depth-first search starting at any chosen root $v$ and label the edges in the order of discovery. Other than the root $v$, all other vertices with at least degree 2 must have a pair of consecutive integer labelled edges (when you first enter the vertex by an edge, you still have at least an undiscovered edge and DFS forces you to immediately discover one of your undiscovered edge).

The exception to this argument is the root, but the root has an edge with label 1. By the way this is why you need the graph to be connected - so that you only have 1 root to deal with.
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IMD2
41 posts
#26 • 1 Y
Y by taki09
thdnder wrote:
An inductive solution.
Let $G = (V,E)$. We induct on $|V|$, assuming $|V| \geq 3$. Assume the problem statement is true on all connected graph with the number of vertices less than $|V|$. Since $G$ is connected, let $T$ be the spanning tree of $G$. Let $v$ be a leaf of $T$. Then $G-v$ is still connected, so by the induction hypothesis, we can label the edges of $G-v$ satisfying the problem condition. Let $\deg v = s$. Then if $s \geq 2$, $\gcd(k, k-1, \dots, k-s+1) = 1$ so labeling the remaining edges in arbitrary order will be satisfying the condition. Thus we're done.

What if the vertex $s$ is connected to goes from degree 1 to degree 2 when you include $s$?
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Maximilian113
547 posts
#27
Y by
Call a vertex with degree at least $2$ "satisfied" if the labels of its adjacent edges have greatest common divisor $1.$

Consider the following algorithm:
For some $k$-cycle, assign the edges the $k$ largest available labels, in increasing order through one direction of the cycle. This ensures that we can remove the second-largest edge and both of its vertices will already have been satisfied. (as consecutive numbers are coprime)
Keep doing this until there are no cycles and the graph is a tree. Then each vertex with degree $1$ in this tree but with degree more than $1$ in the original graph is satisfied.
At this point if there are $r$ edges in this tree, we have the first $r$ numbers left as labels. For each vertice adjacent to a leaf, if it is adjacent to $\ell$ leaves assign their connections the $\ell$ largest available labels, and we can proceed inductively as this vertice will have been satisfied, and we are left with a smaller tree of the same scenario. QED
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