Random problem given to me by nsun

by Wolstenholme, Aug 3, 2014, 11:30 PM

Find all positive integers $ n $ and $ k $ such that $ 1^n+2^n+\cdots+n^n=k! $

Solution:

It is clear that $ n = 1 $ works so assume that $ n > 1 $.

Now, assume $ n $ is odd. I shall show that $ n + 2 \vert 2^n + 3^n + \dots + n^n $. Grouping terms so that the sum becomes $ (2^n + n^n) + (3^n + (n - 1)^n) + ... + \left(\left(\frac{n + 1}{2}\right)^n + \left(\frac{n + 3}{2}\right)^n\right) $ we find since $ n $ is odd that $ n + 2 $ divides each of the terms and so we have the desired result. Therefore since $ n + 2 \nmid 1^n + 2^n + \dots + n^n $ we have that $ k < n + 2 $ but then clearly the RHS is smaller than the LHS so there is no solution if $ n $ is a odd integer greater than $ 1 $.

Now, since we know that $ n $ is even, I claim that $ v_{2}(1^n + 2^n + \dots + n^n) = v_{2}(n) - 1 $. To prove this, consider the identity $ 1^n + 2^n + \dots + n^n = (1^n - 1) + (2^n) + (3^n - 1) + (4^n) + \dots ((n - 1)^n - 1) + (n^n) + \frac{n}{2} $. By LTE, each of the terms in parenthesis is divisible by $ 2^{v_{2}(n)} $ which is obviously greater than $ v_{2}(n) - 1 $. But $ v_{2}\left(\frac{n}{2}\right) = v_{2}(n) - 1 $ so my claim is proven. But since $ k > n $ we have that $ v_{2}(k!) > v_{2}(n) - 1 $ which means that equality cannot hold.

Therefore the only answer is $ n = 1 $.
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by Wolstenholme, Aug 4, 2014, 12:22 AM

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