IMO 2010 #1

by Wolstenholme, Nov 1, 2014, 1:07 AM

Find all function $f:\mathbb{R}\rightarrow\mathbb{R}$ such that for all $x,y\in\mathbb{R}$ the following equality holds \[
f(\left\lfloor x\right\rfloor y)=f(x)\left\lfloor f(y)\right\rfloor \]


where $\left\lfloor a\right\rfloor $ is greatest integer not greater than $a.$

Solution:

Letting $ x = 0 $ we have that $ f(0) = f(0)\left\lfloor{f(y)}\right\rfloor $ so either $ f(0) = 0 $ or $ \left\lfloor{f(y)}\right\rfloor = 1 $ for all $ y \in \mathbb{R}. $ We now proceed with casework.

Case 1: $ \left\lfloor{f(y)}\right\rfloor = 1 $ for all $ y \in \mathbb{R}. $

This immediately yields the solution $ \boxed{f(x) = c, c \in [1, 2)} $

Case 2: $ f(0) = 0 $

Letting $ x = y = 1 $ we have that $ f(1) = f(1)\left\lfloor{f(1)}\right\rfloor $ so either $ f(1) = 0 $ or $ \left\lfloor{f(1)}\right\rfloor = 1. $

Case 2.1: $ f(1) = 0 $

Letting $ x = 1 $ immediately yields the solution $ \boxed{f(x) = 0} $

Case 2.2: $ \left\lfloor{f(1)}\right\rfloor = 1 $

Letting $ y = 1 $ yields that $ f(x) = f(\left\lfloor{x}\right\rfloor) $ for all $ x \in \mathbb{R}. $ Knowing this and letting $ x = 2 $ and $ y = \frac{1}{2} $ yields $ f(1) = f(2)\left\lfloor{f\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)\right\rfloor = f(2)f(0) = 0 $ which contradicts the fact that $ \left\lfloor{f(1)}\right\rfloor = 1. $

Therefore we have found all possible solutions and they are all easily shown to work so we are done.
This post has been edited 2 times. Last edited by Wolstenholme, Nov 1, 2014, 1:08 AM

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