IMO 2014 #5

by Wolstenholme, Oct 27, 2014, 3:07 AM

For each positive integer $n$, the Bank of Cape Town issues coins of denomination $\frac1n$. Given a finite collection of such coins (of not necessarily different denominations) with total value at most most $99+\frac12$, prove that it is possible to split this collection into $100$ or fewer groups, such that each group has total value at most $1$

Proof:

Replace $ 100 $ by $ n $. I will prove the stronger statement that we can do this when the coins have total value at most $ n - \frac{n}{2n + 1} $.

We perform induction on $ n $. Note that the base case of $ n = 1 $ is trivial. Now, if we have two or more coins with value $ \frac{1}{2m} $ for some $ m \in \mathbb{Z} $ then we can make two of them into a coin with value $ \frac{1}{m} $ and apply the induction hypothesis. We can do the same if we have $ 2m + 1 $ or more coins with value $ \frac{1}{2m + 1} $. Therefore assume we have at most $ 2m $ coins with value $ 2m + 1 $ and at most $ 1 $ coin with value $ 2m $ for any $ m \in \mathbb{N} $.

Clearly we can assume there are no coins with value $ 1 $. Place all the coins with value $ \frac{1}{2} $ into a box (there is clearly at most $ 1 $ such coin). For every positive integer $ m < n $, put all coins with value $ \frac{1}{2m + 1} $ or $ \frac{1}{2m + 2} $ into a box (clearly this works as the maximum value in a specfic box is then $ 2m\left(\frac{1}{2m + 1}\right) + \frac{1}{2m + 2} < 1 $).

Now, we have at most $ n $ boxes and the only coins remaining are those with value $ \frac{1}{2n + 1} $ or less. I claim we can distribute these coins among the already-created boxes. Assume the contrary - then the total value of coins in each box is more than $ 1 - \frac{2n}{2n + 1} $ so the total value of all coins is greater than $ n\left(1 - \frac{1}{2n + 1}\right) = n - \frac{n}{2n + 1} $, contradiction! Therefore, we are done.
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by Wolstenholme, Oct 27, 2014, 3:07 AM

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Actually the taking out $1$ thing doesn't work when positing your inductive hypothesis. This is because $n - \frac {n} {2n+1}$ or whatever is a bad bound. If you replace it with $n - \frac {1} {2}$ everything works fine I think. Congrats on getting 37-38 on IMO (although I guess I don't know how long you spent on Problem 3?).

by yugrey, Oct 27, 2014, 3:06 PM

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Thanks Yugrey! Although unfortunately I spent 5+ hours on number 3. However, I did solve problems 1, 2, 4, 5, and 6 (kind of) within reasonable time limits :P

by Wolstenholme, Oct 27, 2014, 3:12 PM

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