IMO 2014 #5
by Wolstenholme, Oct 27, 2014, 3:07 AM
For each positive integer
, the Bank of Cape Town issues coins of denomination
. Given a finite collection of such coins (of not necessarily different denominations) with total value at most most
, prove that it is possible to split this collection into
or fewer groups, such that each group has total value at most 
Proof:
Replace
by
. I will prove the stronger statement that we can do this when the coins have total value at most
.
We perform induction on
. Note that the base case of
is trivial. Now, if we have two or more coins with value
for some
then we can make two of them into a coin with value
and apply the induction hypothesis. We can do the same if we have
or more coins with value
. Therefore assume we have at most
coins with value
and at most
coin with value
for any
.
Clearly we can assume there are no coins with value
. Place all the coins with value
into a box (there is clearly at most
such coin). For every positive integer
, put all coins with value
or
into a box (clearly this works as the maximum value in a specfic box is then
).
Now, we have at most
boxes and the only coins remaining are those with value
or less. I claim we can distribute these coins among the already-created boxes. Assume the contrary - then the total value of coins in each box is more than
so the total value of all coins is greater than
, contradiction! Therefore, we are done.





Proof:
Replace



We perform induction on












Clearly we can assume there are no coins with value







Now, we have at most




This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by Wolstenholme, Oct 27, 2014, 3:07 AM