IMO 2013 #5

by Wolstenholme, Oct 28, 2014, 4:29 AM

Let $\mathbb Q_{>0}$ be the set of all positive rational numbers. Let $f: \mathbb Q_{>0}\to\mathbb R$ be a function satisfying the following three conditions:

(i) for all $x,y\in\mathbb Q_{>0}$, $f(x)f(y)\geq f(xy)$;
(ii) for all $x,y\in\mathbb Q_{>0}$, $f(x+y)\geq f(x)+f(y)$ ;
(iii) there exists a rational number $a>1$ such that $f(a)=a$.

Prove that $f(x) = x$ for all $x \in \mathbb Q_{>0}$.

Proof:

Before I start, I want to discuss motivation (all of the below will be un--rigorous). Basically, property (i) says the function is growing slowly while property (ii) says the function is growing quickly. So what we're eventually going to want to do is assume $ f(m) < m $ or $ f(m) > m $ for some $ m $ and derive a contradiction. The first thing I noticed when looking at this problem was that after applying property (ii) a bunch of times, we could get $ f(n) \ge n $ for all $ n \in \mathbb{N} $. After that I started getting annoyed since if $ f $ could be negative, bad things happened. So then I proved this couldn't occur and the proof basically followed. Without further adieu, here is the proof!

Lemma 1: $ f(1) \ge 1 $

Proof: Property (ii) gives $ f(a)f(1) \ge f(a) \Longrightarrow af(1) \ge a $ and since $ a > 0 $ we get that $ f(1) \ge 1 $ as desired.

Lemma 2: $ f(n) \ge n $ for all $ n \in \mathbb{N} $

Proof: Applying Lemma 1 and property (ii) multiple times immediately yields the desired result.

Lemma 3: $ f(q) > 0 $ for all $ q \in \mathbb{Q^+} $

Proof: Assume the contrary, so that $ f\left(\frac{a}{b}\right) < 0 $ for some $ a, b \in \mathbb{N} $. Then property (i) gives that $ f\left(\frac{a}{b}\right)f(b) \ge f(a) $ and since by Lemma 2 we have that $ f(a) $ and $ f(b) $ are positive, we have a contradiction as desired.

Lemma 4: $ f(n) = n $ for all $ n \in \mathbb{N} $

Proof: Note that Lemma 3 implies that $ f $ is strictly increasing. Now, assume for the sake of contradiction that there exists an $ m \in \mathbb{N} $ such that $ f(m) > m $. Let $ f(m) - m = \epsilon > 0 $. Then by repeated applications of property (ii) we have that $ f(mn) \ge nf(m) = nm + n\epsilon $ for all $ n \in \mathbb{N} $. Now it's clear that there exist $ n, k \in \mathbb{N} $ such that $ mn < a^k < mn + n\epsilon $. Then since $ f $ is strictly increasing we have that $ f(a^k) > f(mn) $. But by property (i) $ f(a^k) = f(a)^k = a^k < mn + n\epsilon = f(mn) $, contradiction!

Now consider any two $ a, b \in \mathbb{N} $. By property (i) we have that $ f\left(\frac{a}{b}\right)f(b) \ge f(a) \Longrightarrow f\left(\frac{a}{b}\right) \ge \frac{a}{b} $. But by property (ii) we also have that $ f(a) \ge bf\left(\frac{a}{b}\right) \Longrightarrow f\left(\frac{a}{b}\right) \le \frac{a}{b} $. Therefore $ f(q) = q $ for all $ q \in \mathbb{Q}^+ $ as desired.

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darn so at summer camp our instructor presented this problem and we spent the first 30 minutes fooling around since the inequality signs were flipped...

by NewAlbionAcademy, Oct 28, 2014, 5:38 AM

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