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k a May Highlights and 2025 AoPS Online Class Information
jlacosta   0
May 1, 2025
May is an exciting month! National MATHCOUNTS is the second week of May in Washington D.C. and our Founder, Richard Rusczyk will be presenting a seminar, Preparing Strong Math Students for College and Careers, on May 11th.

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[*]May 21st, 4:00pm PT/7:00pm ET, Mathcamp 2025 Qualifying Quiz Part 2 Math Jam, Problems 5 and 6, Canada/USA Mathcamp staff will discuss solutions to Problems 5 and 6 of the 2025 Mathcamp Qualifying Quiz![/list]
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0 replies
jlacosta
May 1, 2025
0 replies
k i Adding contests to the Contest Collections
dcouchman   1
N Apr 5, 2023 by v_Enhance
Want to help AoPS remain a valuable Olympiad resource? Help us add contests to AoPS's Contest Collections.

Find instructions and a list of contests to add here: https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/c40244h1064480_contests_to_add
1 reply
dcouchman
Sep 9, 2019
v_Enhance
Apr 5, 2023
k i Zero tolerance
ZetaX   49
N May 4, 2019 by NoDealsHere
Source: Use your common sense! (enough is enough)
Some users don't want to learn, some other simply ignore advises.
But please follow the following guideline:


To make it short: ALWAYS USE YOUR COMMON SENSE IF POSTING!
If you don't have common sense, don't post.


More specifically:

For new threads:


a) Good, meaningful title:
The title has to say what the problem is about in best way possible.
If that title occured already, it's definitely bad. And contest names aren't good either.
That's in fact a requirement for being able to search old problems.

Examples:
Bad titles:
- "Hard"/"Medium"/"Easy" (if you find it so cool how hard/easy it is, tell it in the post and use a title that tells us the problem)
- "Number Theory" (hey guy, guess why this forum's named that way¿ and is it the only such problem on earth¿)
- "Fibonacci" (there are millions of Fibonacci problems out there, all posted and named the same...)
- "Chinese TST 2003" (does this say anything about the problem¿)
Good titles:
- "On divisors of a³+2b³+4c³-6abc"
- "Number of solutions to x²+y²=6z²"
- "Fibonacci numbers are never squares"


b) Use search function:
Before posting a "new" problem spend at least two, better five, minutes to look if this problem was posted before. If it was, don't repost it. If you have anything important to say on topic, post it in one of the older threads.
If the thread is locked cause of this, use search function.

Update (by Amir Hossein). The best way to search for two keywords in AoPS is to input
[code]+"first keyword" +"second keyword"[/code]
so that any post containing both strings "first word" and "second form".


c) Good problem statement:
Some recent really bad post was:
[quote]$lim_{n\to 1}^{+\infty}\frac{1}{n}-lnn$[/quote]
It contains no question and no answer.
If you do this, too, you are on the best way to get your thread deleted. Write everything clearly, define where your variables come from (and define the "natural" numbers if used). Additionally read your post at least twice before submitting. After you sent it, read it again and use the Edit-Button if necessary to correct errors.


For answers to already existing threads:


d) Of any interest and with content:
Don't post things that are more trivial than completely obvious. For example, if the question is to solve $x^{3}+y^{3}=z^{3}$, do not answer with "$x=y=z=0$ is a solution" only. Either you post any kind of proof or at least something unexpected (like "$x=1337, y=481, z=42$ is the smallest solution). Someone that does not see that $x=y=z=0$ is a solution of the above without your post is completely wrong here, this is an IMO-level forum.
Similar, posting "I have solved this problem" but not posting anything else is not welcome; it even looks that you just want to show off what a genius you are.

e) Well written and checked answers:
Like c) for new threads, check your solutions at least twice for mistakes. And after sending, read it again and use the Edit-Button if necessary to correct errors.



To repeat it: ALWAYS USE YOUR COMMON SENSE IF POSTING!


Everything definitely out of range of common sense will be locked or deleted (exept for new users having less than about 42 posts, they are newbies and need/get some time to learn).

The above rules will be applied from next monday (5. march of 2007).
Feel free to discuss on this here.
49 replies
ZetaX
Feb 27, 2007
NoDealsHere
May 4, 2019
Proving a group is abelian
dragosgamer12   1
N 38 minutes ago by dragosgamer12
Source: Radu Diaconu, Gazeta Matematica seria B Nr.2/2025
Let $(G,\cdot)$ be a group, $K$ a subgroup of $G$ and $f : G \rightarrow G$ an endomorphism with the following property:
There exists a nonempty set $H\subset	G$ such that for any $k \in G \setminus K$ there exist $h  \in H$ with $f(h)=k$ and $z \cdot h= h \cdot z$, for any $z \in H$.

a)Prove that $(G, \cdot)$ is abelian.
b)If, additionally, $H$ is a subgroup of $G$, prove that $H=G
1 reply
dragosgamer12
41 minutes ago
dragosgamer12
38 minutes ago
|A/pA|<=p, finite index=> isomorphism - OIMU 2008 Problem 7
Jorge Miranda   2
N 3 hours ago by pi_quadrat_sechstel
Let $A$ be an abelian additive group such that all nonzero elements have infinite order and for each prime number $p$ we have the inequality $|A/pA|\leq p$, where $pA = \{pa |a \in A\}$, $pa = a+a+\cdots+a$ (where the sum has $p$ summands) and $|A/pA|$ is the order of the quotient group $A/pA$ (the index of the subgroup $pA$).

Prove that each subgroup of $A$ of finite index is isomorphic to $A$.
2 replies
Jorge Miranda
Aug 28, 2010
pi_quadrat_sechstel
3 hours ago
abc = 1 Inequality generalisation
CHESSR1DER   6
N 3 hours ago by CHESSR1DER
Source: Own
Let $a,b,c > 0$, $abc=1$.
Find min $ \frac{1}{a^m(bx+cy)^n} + \frac{1}{b^m(cx+ay)^n} + \frac{1}{c^m(cx+ay)^n}$.
$1)$ $m,n,x,y$ are fixed positive integers.
$2)$ $m,n,x,y$ are fixed positive real numbers.
6 replies
CHESSR1DER
4 hours ago
CHESSR1DER
3 hours ago
Fond all functions in M with a) f(1)=5/2, b) f(1)=√3
Amir Hossein   5
N 3 hours ago by jasperE3
Source: IMO LongList 1982 - P34
Let $M$ be the set of all functions $f$ with the following properties:

(i) $f$ is defined for all real numbers and takes only real values.

(ii) For all $x, y \in \mathbb R$ the following equality holds: $f(x)f(y) = f(x + y) + f(x - y).$

(iii) $f(0) \neq 0.$

Determine all functions $f \in M$ such that

(a) $f(1)=\frac 52$,

(b) $f(1)= \sqrt 3$.
5 replies
Amir Hossein
Mar 18, 2011
jasperE3
3 hours ago
Prove the statement
Butterfly   8
N 3 hours ago by oty
Given an infinite sequence $\{x_n\} \subseteq  [0,1]$, there exists some constant $C$, for any $r>0$, among the sequence $x_n$ and $x_m$ could be chosen to satisfy $|n-m|\ge r $ and $|x_n-x_m|<\frac{C}{|n-m|}$.
8 replies
Butterfly
May 7, 2025
oty
3 hours ago
help me please
thuanz123   6
N 4 hours ago by pavel kozlov
find all $a,b \in \mathbb{Z}$ such that:
a) $3a^2-2b^2=1$
b) $a^2-6b^2=1$
6 replies
thuanz123
Jan 17, 2016
pavel kozlov
4 hours ago
Problem 5 (Second Day)
darij grinberg   78
N 4 hours ago by cj13609517288
Source: IMO 2004 Athens
In a convex quadrilateral $ABCD$, the diagonal $BD$ bisects neither the angle $ABC$ nor the angle $CDA$. The point $P$ lies inside $ABCD$ and satisfies \[\angle PBC=\angle DBA\quad\text{and}\quad \angle PDC=\angle BDA.\] Prove that $ABCD$ is a cyclic quadrilateral if and only if $AP=CP$.
78 replies
darij grinberg
Jul 13, 2004
cj13609517288
4 hours ago
concyclic wanted, PQ = BP, cyclic quadrilateral and 2 parallelograms related
parmenides51   2
N 4 hours ago by SuperBarsh
Source: 2011 Italy TST 2.2
Let $ABCD$ be a cyclic quadrilateral in which the lines $BC$ and $AD$ meet at a point $P$. Let $Q$ be the point of the line $BP$, different from $B$, such that $PQ = BP$. We construct the parallelograms $CAQR$ and $DBCS$. Prove that the points $C, Q, R, S$ lie on the same circle.
2 replies
parmenides51
Sep 25, 2020
SuperBarsh
4 hours ago
Integer FE Again
popcorn1   43
N 4 hours ago by DeathIsAwe
Source: ISL 2020 N5
Determine all functions $f$ defined on the set of all positive integers and taking non-negative integer values, satisfying the three conditions:
[list]
[*] $(i)$ $f(n) \neq 0$ for at least one $n$;
[*] $(ii)$ $f(x y)=f(x)+f(y)$ for every positive integers $x$ and $y$;
[*] $(iii)$ there are infinitely many positive integers $n$ such that $f(k)=f(n-k)$ for all $k<n$.
[/list]
43 replies
popcorn1
Jul 20, 2021
DeathIsAwe
4 hours ago
Long and wacky inequality
Royal_mhyasd   2
N 5 hours ago by Royal_mhyasd
Source: Me
Let $x, y, z$ be positive real numbers such that $x^2 + y^2 + z^2 = 12$. Find the minimum value of the following sum :
$$\sum_{cyc}\frac{(x^3+2y)^3}{3x^2yz - 16z - 8yz + 6x^2z}$$knowing that the denominators are positive real numbers.
2 replies
Royal_mhyasd
May 12, 2025
Royal_mhyasd
5 hours ago
Perpendicular passes from the intersection of diagonals, \angle AEB = \angle CED
NO_SQUARES   1
N 5 hours ago by mathuz
Source: 239 MO 2025 10-11 p3
Inside of convex quadrilateral $ABCD$ point $E$ was chosen such that $\angle DAE = \angle CAB$ and $\angle ADE = \angle CDB$. Prove that if perpendicular from $E$ to $AD$ passes from the intersection of diagonals of $ABCD$, then $\angle AEB = \angle CED$.
1 reply
NO_SQUARES
May 5, 2025
mathuz
5 hours ago
A game with balls and boxes
egxa   6
N 5 hours ago by Sh309had
Source: Turkey JBMO TST 2023 Day 1 P4
Initially, Aslı distributes $1000$ balls to $30$ boxes as she wishes. After that, Aslı and Zehra make alternated moves which consists of taking a ball in any wanted box starting with Aslı. One who takes the last ball from any box takes that box to herself. What is the maximum number of boxes can Aslı guarantee to take herself regardless of Zehra's moves?
6 replies
egxa
Apr 30, 2023
Sh309had
5 hours ago
Angle Relationships in Triangles
steven_zhang123   2
N 5 hours ago by Captainscrubz
In $\triangle ABC$, $AB > AC$. The internal angle bisector of $\angle BAC$ and the external angle bisector of $\angle BAC$ intersect the ray $BC$ at points $D$ and $E$, respectively. Given that $CE - CD = 2AC$, prove that $\angle ACB = 2\angle ABC$.
2 replies
steven_zhang123
Yesterday at 11:09 PM
Captainscrubz
5 hours ago
Functional equation from limit
IsicleFlow   1
N Today at 4:22 PM by jasperE3
Is there a solution to the functional equation $f(x)=\frac{1}{1-x}f(\frac{2 \sqrt{x} }{1-x}), f(0)=1$ Such That $ f(x) $ is even?
Click to reveal hidden text
1 reply
IsicleFlow
Jun 9, 2024
jasperE3
Today at 4:22 PM
ISI 2019 : Problem #2
integrated_JRC   40
N May 3, 2025 by Sammy27
Source: I.S.I. 2019
Let $f:(0,\infty)\to\mathbb{R}$ be defined by $$f(x)=\lim_{n\to\infty}\cos^n\bigg(\frac{1}{n^x}\bigg)$$(a) Show that $f$ has exactly one point of discontinuity.
(b) Evaluate $f$ at its point of discontinuity.
40 replies
integrated_JRC
May 5, 2019
Sammy27
May 3, 2025
ISI 2019 : Problem #2
G H J
G H BBookmark kLocked kLocked NReply
Source: I.S.I. 2019
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integrated_JRC
3465 posts
#1 • 4 Y
Y by Centralorbit, math_and_me, Adventure10, Mango247
Let $f:(0,\infty)\to\mathbb{R}$ be defined by $$f(x)=\lim_{n\to\infty}\cos^n\bigg(\frac{1}{n^x}\bigg)$$(a) Show that $f$ has exactly one point of discontinuity.
(b) Evaluate $f$ at its point of discontinuity.
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alexheinis
10603 posts
#3 • 7 Y
Y by Idea_lover, math_and_me, Arkajit_Ganguly, integrated_JRC, Adventure10, Mango247, soryn
We have ${1\over {n^x}}\rightarrow 0$. We write $f\sim g$ if $\lim_{x\rightarrow 0}{{f(x)}\over {g(x)}}=1$ then $\ln \cos^n ({1\over {n^x}})=n\ln \cos ({1\over {n^x}})\sim n(\cos {1\over {n^x}}-1)\sim {{-n}\over 2} {1\over {n^{2x}}}={{-1}\over 2} n^{1-2x}$.
Hence if $x<1/2$ we have $f(x)=0$, if $x=1/2$ we have $f(x)={1\over {\sqrt{e}}}$ and if $x>1/2$ we have $f(x)=1$.
Thanks greyninja for the correction.
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by alexheinis, May 5, 2019, 3:53 PM
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integrated_JRC
3465 posts
#4 • 3 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247, chang09
Nice solution. :) But, actually, @alexheinis, this is from ISI Entrance Exam 2019, which is just a high school level exam. So, can you please post a little bit easier solution ?
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Greninja4210
52 posts
#5 • 1 Y
Y by Adventure10
alexheinis wrote:
We have ${1\over {n^x}}\rightarrow 0$. We write $f\sim g$ if $\lim_{x\rightarrow 0}{{f(x)}\over {g(x)}}=1$ then $\ln \cos^n ({1\over {n^x}})=n\ln \cos ({1\over {n^x}})\sim n(\cos {1\over {n^x}}-1)\sim {{-n}\over 2} {1\over {n^{2x}}}={{-1}\over 2} n^{2x-1}$.
Hence if $x<1/2$ we have $f(x)=1$, if $x=1/2$ we have $f(x)={1\over {\sqrt{e}}}$ and if $x>1/2$ we have $f(x)=0$.

I think there is a typo. It must be $$\frac {-n}{2n^{2x}}=-\frac {n^{\color{red}{1-2x}}}{2}$$
So for $x> 1/2$ ,$f(x)=1$ while for $x< 1/2$ ,$f(x)=0$
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Greninja4210
52 posts
#6 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
integrated_JRC wrote:
Nice solution. :) But, actually, @alexheinis, this is from ISI Entrance Exam 2019, which is just a high school level exam. So, can you please post a little bit easier solution ?

I think his (alexheinis) answer is appropriate to be considered as legible for ISI. My solution in the paper was also along a similar sketch as of his answer
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Ghoshadi
926 posts
#7 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
@above, what Alexheinis has done is absolutely perfect. But it is not standard to many high-school students who are not familiar with order notation. They are not even familiar with the 'rate' of growth of a function. So this question was indeed on a harder side, in my opinion.
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MathPassionForever
1663 posts
#8 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
So ISI did ask something quite beyond the curriculum? Shocking.
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Ghoshadi
926 posts
#9 • 3 Y
Y by integrated_JRC, Adventure10, Mango247
MathPassionForever wrote:
So ISI did ask something quite beyond the curriculum? Shocking.

See, the question can be tackled elementarily by proving each $\sim$ in Alexheinis's answer. But doing that during the exam would take away much time and I guess very few students could do something close to that. So although it is not something beyond the syllabus, but it is on the harder side with respect to the participants.
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by Ghoshadi, May 5, 2019, 5:53 PM
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Greninja4210
52 posts
#10 • 3 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247, soryn
@above Check if my solution is correct.

$$f(x)=\lim_{n\to\infty} \left(\cos\left(\frac {1}{n^x}\right)\right)^n$$
But near $\theta=0$ ; $\cos\theta \sim 1-\frac {\theta ^2}{2}$

Hence $$f(x)=\lim_{n\to\infty} \left(1-\frac {1}{2n^{2x}}\right)^n$$$$f(x)=\exp {\left(\lim_{n\to\infty} \left(n\cdot\ln\left(1-\frac {1}{2n^{2x}}\right)\right)\right)}$$
But near $\alpha=0$ ,$\ln(1-\alpha)\sim-\alpha$

Using this we have $$f(x)=\exp {\left(\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac {-n}{2n^{2x}}\right)}$$
Hence $$f(x)=\exp {\left(\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac {-n^{1-2x}}{2}\right)}$$Making cases like sir alexhienis did, we arrive at the answer.
This post has been edited 3 times. Last edited by Greninja4210, May 6, 2019, 12:34 AM
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MissionModi2019
27 posts
#11 • 1 Y
Y by Adventure10
Atlast ISI asked something related to Growth rate (asymmetric behaviour) of a function!
Can someone please post an elementary solution for this problem? I have a solution that uses something that is not elementary. ( particularly I would like to say, its much easier for students who have taken analysis 1 and 2 course in college)
This post has been edited 3 times. Last edited by MissionModi2019, May 6, 2019, 6:42 AM
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MathPassionForever
1663 posts
#12 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
What alexheinis did can also be done by us as it is very 'intuitive' except maybe the series for cosine. But allowing for Taylor series will make the problem easy. But since this exam is for high school guys, this 'intuitive' stuff needs further elaboration.
Edit: even the cosine can be approximated easily by limits.
This post has been edited 2 times. Last edited by MathPassionForever, May 6, 2019, 12:02 PM
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noelmaster
2 posts
#13 • 10 Y
Y by integrated_JRC, Wolfgang, Ghoshadi, ayan_mathematics_king, Durga01, opptoinfinity, SP153, leibnitz, Adventure10, soryn
How about this one, I used nothing fancy, all standard limit theorms.
Attachments:
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alexheinis
10603 posts
#14 • 4 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247, soryn, teomihai
Basically I used two standard limits in my solution: $\lim_{x\rightarrow 0}{{\ln (1+x)}\over x}=1$ and $\lim_{x\rightarrow 0} {{1-\cos x}\over {x^2}}=1/2$.
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by alexheinis, May 6, 2019, 6:18 PM
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oldepsilon
127 posts
#15 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
These are NOT standard limits, thye are asymptotical approximations!
alexheinis wrote:
We have ${1\over {n^x}}\rightarrow 0$. We write $f\sim g$ if $\lim_{x\rightarrow 0}{{f(x)}\over {g(x)}}=1$ then $\ln \cos^n ({1\over {n^x}})=n\ln \cos ({1\over {n^x}})\sim n(\cos {1\over {n^x}}-1)\sim {{-n}\over 2} {1\over {n^{2x}}}={{-1}\over 2} n^{1-2x}$.
Hence if $x<1/2$ we have $f(x)=0$, if $x=1/2$ we have $f(x)={1\over {\sqrt{e}}}$ and if $x>1/2$ we have $f(x)=1$.
Thanks greyninja for the correction.
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alexheinis
10603 posts
#16 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
I see your back, Tuzo. I'd say welcome back if I meant it. The term asymptotical approximations makes no sense, they are limits and they are exact. Don't utter words that you don't understand.
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oldepsilon
127 posts
#17 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
I do not know who is TuZo. It is your old friend?
Look on the Wikipedia, maybe can understand what I want to mean: https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Asymptotic_expansion
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by oldepsilon, May 7, 2019, 7:05 AM
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Masac9
960 posts
#18 • 4 Y
Y by Centralorbit, Qazxcvbnm, opptoinfinity, Adventure10
This time ISI Mmath questions more easy than Isi bmath/bstat really strange ....
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alexheinis
10603 posts
#19 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
@oldepsilon: thank you for your comment. I use the symbol $\sim$ with another meaning, see #3 for the definition. So it's not about truncating series, but just about the quotient of two functions. How you prove them (#14) is a different matter: the first one is a derivative and for the second one you can use Taylor or de l'Hopital or $1-\cos x=2\sin^2(x/2)$, whatever you prefer. I liked this problem.
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by alexheinis, May 7, 2019, 10:52 AM
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oldepsilon
127 posts
#20 • 1 Y
Y by Adventure10
Thank you Sir for the clarifications!
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Centralorbit
315 posts
#21 • 1 Y
Y by Adventure10
Masac9 wrote:
This time ISI Mmath questions more easy than Isi bmath/bstat really strange ....

I am scoring 96 in $\textbf{ISI B.Stat}$ Mcq and solved only 2 Subjective problems correctly. Is there any chance of my qualification for the interview?
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by Centralorbit, May 7, 2019, 2:42 PM
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WB2017
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#23 • 4 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247, Mango247, Mango247
Given, $$f(x)=\lim_{n\to\infty} \cos^n\left(\dfrac{1}{n^x}\right)=\lim_{n\to\infty} \left[1+\left(\cos\left(n^{-x}\right)-1\right)\right]^n=\lim_{n\to\infty} \left(1+\dfrac{a_n}{n}\right)^n$$where $a_n=n\left(\cos\left(n^{-x}\right)-1\right)$ . If we define, $a=\lim_{n\to\infty}a_n$ , then we have $f(x)=e^a$.

Now,
$$\lim_{n\to\infty}a_n = \lim_{n\to\infty}n\left(\cos\left(n^{-x}\right)-1\right)=\lim_{n\to\infty}-\dfrac{1}{2}n^{1-2x}\left(1-\frac{1}{12}n^{-2x}+\cdots\right)$$and the quantity in the parentheses goes to $1$ as $n\to\infty$, since $x>0$. So we just need to check the behaviour of $n^{1-2x}$ when $n\to\infty$.
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oldepsilon
127 posts
#24 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
Congratulation WB2017! Other way to finalize it is:
$\underset{n\to \infty }{\mathop{\lim }}\,{{a}_{n}}=\underset{n\to \infty }{\mathop{\lim }}\,n\left( \cos \left( {{n}^{-x}} \right)-1 \right)=-\underset{n\to \infty }{\mathop{\lim }}\,2n{{\sin }^{2}}\frac{{{n}^{-x}}}{2}=-\frac{1}{2}\underset{n\to \infty }{\mathop{\lim }}\,{{n}^{1-2x}}\frac{{{\sin }^{2}}\frac{{{n}^{-x}}}{2}}{\frac{{{n}^{-2x}}}{4}}=-\frac{1}{2}\underset{n\to \infty }{\mathop{\lim }}\,{{n}^{1-2x}}$
This post has been edited 2 times. Last edited by oldepsilon, May 15, 2019, 6:34 AM
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alexheinis
10603 posts
#25 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
@above: I think you mean ${{-1}\over 2}\lim_n n^{1-2x}\{ {{\sin^2(n^{-x}/2)}\over {n^{-2x}/4}}\}$ in the last-but-one term.
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oldepsilon
127 posts
#26 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
Yes, this is what I wrote.
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alexheinis
10603 posts
#27 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
No, it's not. In the last-but-one term it should be $n^{1-2x}$ as well. Otherwise no equality.
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oldepsilon
127 posts
#28 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
Okay boss, it was just a little typo! :P
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oggy2000
2 posts
#29 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
Centralorbit wrote:
Masac9 wrote:
This time ISI Mmath questions more easy than Isi bmath/bstat really strange ....

I am scoring 96 in $\textbf{ISI B.Stat}$ Mcq and solved only 2 Subjective problems correctly. Is there any chance of my qualification for the interview?

BSTAT results are available now. I doubt solving 2-3 subjective problems correctly would get you through but this year questions were on the tough side you may get lucky.
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ftheftics
651 posts
#30 • 2 Y
Y by Gerninza, Adventure10
My crazy solution
This post has been edited 4 times. Last edited by ftheftics, May 19, 2021, 3:31 AM
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A-student
117 posts
#31 • 1 Y
Y by Adventure10
alexheinis wrote:
We have ${1\over {n^x}}\rightarrow 0$. We write $f\sim g$ if $\lim_{x\rightarrow 0}{{f(x)}\over {g(x)}}=1$ then $\ln \cos^n ({1\over {n^x}})=n\ln \cos ({1\over {n^x}})\sim n(\cos {1\over {n^x}}-1)\sim {{-n}\over 2} {1\over {n^{2x}}}={{-1}\over 2} n^{1-2x}$.
Hence if $x<1/2$ we have $f(x)=0$, if $x=1/2$ we have $f(x)={1\over {\sqrt{e}}}$ and if $x>1/2$ we have $f(x)=1$.
Thanks greyninja for the correction.

A dumb question, but what is f~g ? Maybe I know the concept but the notation is new to me
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A-student
117 posts
#32 • 1 Y
Y by Adventure10
I tried one method, and I think it worked out. Can someone see it?

$$f(x)=\lim_{n\to\infty}\cos^n\bigg(\frac{1}{n^x}\bigg)$$Taking $ln$ both sides, we have :

$$ln(f(x))=\lim_{n\to\infty}\ n\ln\cos\bigg(\frac{1}{n^x}\bigg)$$Let the part inside $ln$ be $k(x)$ . we write RHS as $ln(k(x)-1+1)\ (\lim_{n\to\infty} ofcourse)$

Now , $k(x) -1$ gives us $-2 sin^2(1/2n^x)$ . Multiplying numerator and denominator with $-2 sin^2(1/2n^x)$ and then $\bigg(\frac{1}{2n^x}\bigg)^2 $, and putting appropriate limits, we are left with $-\bigg(\frac{1}{2n^{2x-1}}\bigg)$. Let this be $\lim_{n\to\infty}a(x)$.

Now, $\lim_{n\to\infty}f(x) = e^{\lim_{n\to\infty}a(x)}$ which turns out to be $0$ for $x<\frac{1}{2}$ , $e^{-\frac{1}{2}}$ for $x=\frac{1}{2}$ and $1$ for $x>\frac{1}{2}$

Thus, the given function is discontinuous at $exactly$ one point $x=\frac{1}{2}$.

If it's correct, please reply and if you like it, please give a thumbs up :)
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by A-student, Dec 19, 2019, 6:52 PM
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integrated_JRC
3465 posts
#33 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
A-student wrote:
Taking $ln$ both sides, we have :

$$ln(f(x))=\lim_{n\to\infty}\ n\ln\cos^n\bigg(\frac{1}{n^x}\bigg)$$
I guess, in order to take $\log$ on both sides, you need to assure first that $f(x)>0$ for all $x>0$.
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A-student
117 posts
#34 • 3 Y
Y by soggydollar, Adventure10, Mango247
integrated_JRC wrote:
A-student wrote:
Taking $ln$ both sides, we have :

$$ln(f(x))=\lim_{n\to\infty}\ n\ln\cos^n\bigg(\frac{1}{n^x}\bigg)$$
I guess, in order to take $\log$ on both sides, you need to assure first that $f(x)>0$ for all $x>0$.

Shouldn't that be so? As the value of parameter inside cos tends to 0?
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SRHMEC
14 posts
#35 • 1 Y
Y by Adventure10
It does not exist only.
I mean to say about the limiting value.
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by SRHMEC, Jan 8, 2020, 3:02 PM
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ayan_mathematics_king
1527 posts
#36
Y by
Why am I getting something weird?
My solution (Not much rigorous):
$f(x)=\lim_{n\to \infty} \cos^n (\frac{1}{n^x})$

$\implies \ln(f(x))=\lim_{n\to \infty} n\ln (\cos (\frac{1}{n^x})$
$=\lim_{z\to 0+} \frac{\ln{cos(z^x)}}{z}$
$\left(\text{let}~~ z=\frac{1}{n} \right)$
$$=\lim_{z\to 0+} \frac{\ln [1+(\cos(z^x)-1) ]}{\cos(z^x)-1} \cdot \frac{\cos(z^x)-1}{z^x} \cdot \frac{z^x}{z}$$Since all the limits exist,We have
$\ln f(x) =0$.
I this case, I am not getting any point of discontinuity. Where did I commit mistake?
Please help.

Note that we can apply log because $\cos^n (\frac{1}{n^x} )$ is always positive.( Since $0 < \frac{1}{n^x} < \frac{\pi}{2}$)
This post has been edited 9 times. Last edited by ayan_mathematics_king, Aug 18, 2020, 4:09 AM
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Ghoshadi
926 posts
#37 • 1 Y
Y by ayan_mathematics_king
ayan_mathematics_king wrote:
Why am I getting something weird?
My solution (Not much rigorous):
$f(x)=\lim_{n\to \infty} \cos^n (\frac{1}{n^x})$

$\implies \ln(f(x))=\lim_{n\to \infty} n\ln (\cos (\frac{1}{n^x})$
$=\lim_{z\to 0+} \frac{\ln{cos(z^x)}}{z}$
$\left(\text{let}~~ z=\frac{1}{n} \right)$
$$=\lim_{z\to 0+} \frac{\ln [1+(\cos(z^x)-1) ]}{\cos(z^x)-1} \cdot \frac{\cos(z^x)-1}{z^x} \cdot \frac{z^x}{z}$$Since all the limits exist,We have
$\ln f(x) =0$.
I this case, I am not getting any point of discontinuity. Where did I commit mistake?
Please help.

Note that we can apply log because $\cos^n (\frac{1}{n^x} )$ is always positive.( Since $0 < \frac{1}{n^x} < \frac{\pi}{2}$)

Your solution is correct upto the following:
$$\ln (f(x)) = \lim_{z\to 0^+} \frac{\cos(z^x) -1}{z}.$$Now you should calculate this limit carefully.

(For instance, when $x=1/2$, what you did is: $\lim_{z\to 0^+} \frac{\cos (z^{1/2}) -1}{z^{1/2}}\times \lim_{z\to 0^+} \frac{z^{1/2}}{z} = 0\times \infty.$ Be careful and see what it should be actually.)
This post has been edited 3 times. Last edited by Ghoshadi, Aug 18, 2020, 5:58 AM
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math_and_me
296 posts
#38
Y by
@above,
I have a question,
Can we use the order notation "~" in actual exam?
Or we have to define it and prove each and every result associated with it that we are going to use.
It's pretty popular, for eg., it can be found in IA Maron's book.
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by math_and_me, Aug 31, 2020, 1:21 PM
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SatisfiedMagma
461 posts
#39
Y by
Here's a solution with L'Hôpital's Rule... Although, I should have avoided it in ISI settings, but here we're...

Solution: The answer is $x = \frac{1}{2}$. We will now explicitly find the function $f$.

The limit is of the type $1^\infty$ and for large enough $n$, $f$ is obviously positive. So, taking natural logarithms both side and using the fact that $\ln(x)$ is continuous over $\mathbb{R}_{>0}$ we get
\[g(x) \coloneqq \ln(f(x)) = 
    \lim_{n \to \infty} n \cdot \ln\left( \cos\left( \frac{1}{n^x} \right) \right) 
    = \lim_{n \to 0^+} \frac{\ln(\cos(n^x))}{n}.\]The limit is of the form $0/0$, so applying L'Hôpital's Rule we get
\[g(x) = \lim_{n \to 0^+} \frac{1}{\cos(n^x)} \times -\sin(n^x) \times xn^{x-1}.\]Using approximations $\sin(x) \approx x$ and $\cos(x) \approx 1$ around $0$, we get
\begin{align*}
        g(x) & = -x \left(\lim_{n \to 0^+} n^{2x-1}\right) \\
             & = \begin{cases}
                     0 \qquad \text{if $x > \frac{1}{2}$}  \\
                     -\frac{1}{2} \qquad \text{if $x = \frac{1}{2}$} \\
                     -\infty \qquad \text{if $x < \frac{1}{2}$.}
                 \end{cases}
    \end{align*}Taking exponential on both the sides, we get
\begin{align*}
        f(x) = \begin{cases}
                   1 \qquad \text{for $x > \frac{1}{2}$}           \\
                   \frac{1}{\sqrt{e}} \qquad \text{for $x = \frac{1}{2}$} \\
                   0 \qquad \text{for $x < \frac{1}{2}$.}
               \end{cases}
    \end{align*}From here, its clear that the only point of discontinuity is $x = \frac{1}{2}$ and we're done. $\blacksquare$
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anudeep
199 posts
#40
Y by
By Taylor's theorem we have a nicer way to represent $\cos^nn^{-x}$ that is,
\begin{align*}
		\cos^nn^{-x}&=\left(1-\frac{n^{-2x}}{2!}+E_2(n^{-x})\right)^n\\
		&\to\exp\left(\frac{-n^{1-2x}}{2}+nE_2(n^{-x})\right)\\
		&=\lim_{n\to\infty}\exp({-n^{1-2x}}/2).
	\end{align*}Where $E_N(x)$ denotes the error function. Computing $f$ for different cases we arrive at the refined form,
$$f(x)=\begin{cases}
			0, & \text{if $x<1/2$,}\\
			e^{-1/2}, & \text{if $x=1/2$}\\
			1, &\text{otherwise.}
	\end{cases}$$So $f$ is discontinuous only at $1/2$. $\square$
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kamatadu
480 posts
#41
Y by
Is it allowed to define a function like $g\colon (0,\infty) \to \mathbb R\cup\{+\infty,-\infty\}$ where,
\[
g(x) = \lim_{n\to \infty} \ln\left(\cos^n\left(\frac 1{n^x}\right)\right).
\]
If not, tackling this problem without the use of the squiggly notation or approximation seems too hard?
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by kamatadu, Apr 19, 2025, 6:37 PM
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Levieee
240 posts
#42 • 1 Y
Y by SatisfiedMagma
Solution without Lhopital or Taylor series
thanks to @SatisfiedMagma for catching the subtle loopholes in the solution
Let \( g \colon (0, \infty) \to \mathbb{R} \cup \{ +\infty, -\infty \} \) be defined as:

\[
g(x) := \lim_{n \to \infty} \log \left( \cos^n \left( \frac{1}{n^x} \right) \right)
\]
Note that \( \cos^n \left( \frac{1}{n^x} \right) > 0 \) for all \( x \in (0, \infty) \), since \( \cos \left( \frac{1}{n^x} \right) \) remains positive for all \( x \).

We proceed by analyzing the limit inside the logarithm:



$$
\lim_{n \to \infty} \log \frac{1 - 2 \sin^2 \left( \frac{1}{2n^x} \right)}{-2 \sin^2 \left( \frac{1}{n^x} \right)} \cdot \left( -2 \sin^2 \left( \frac{1}{n^x} \right) \cdot n \right)
$$



We know that this limit exists and simplifies to:

\[
\lim_{n \to \infty} \log  \frac{1 - 2 \sin^2 \left( \frac{1}{2n^x} \right)}{-2 \sin^2 \left( \frac{1}{n^x} \right)} = 1
\]
and

\[
\lim_{n \to \infty} \left( -2 \sin^2 \left( \frac{1}{2n^x} \right) \right) = 0
\]
For the second limit:

\[
\lim_{n \to \infty} \left( \frac{-2 \sin^2 \left( \frac{1}{2n^x} \right)}{\left( \frac{1}{2n^x} \right)^2} \cdot \left( \frac{1}{2n^x} \right)^2 \cdot n \right) =
\begin{cases}
0 & \text{if } x > \frac{1}{2} \\
-\frac{1}{2} & \text{if } x = \frac{1}{2} \\
-\infty & \text{if } x < \frac{1}{2}
\end{cases}
\]
Thus, the value of \( f(x) \) can be described as:

\[
f(x) := e^{g(x)} = \lim_{n \to \infty} \cos^n \left( \frac{1}{n^x} \right)
\]
Specifically, for \( x = \frac{1}{2} \):

\[
f\left( \frac{1}{2} \right) = \lim_{n \to \infty} \cos^n \left( \frac{1}{n^{\frac{1}{2}}} \right) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{e}}
\]
Finally, we summarize the behavior of \( f(x) \):

\[
f(x) =
\begin{cases}
0 & \text{if } x \in \left( 0, \frac{1}{2} \right) \\
\frac{1}{\sqrt{e}} & \text{if } x = \frac{1}{2} \\
1 & \text{if } x > 1
\end{cases}
\]
---

oh F i used extended reals, which is not supposed to be known
@below has the best and complete proof in this thread
This post has been edited 3 times. Last edited by Levieee, May 3, 2025, 9:40 AM
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Sammy27
83 posts
#46 • 5 Y
Y by kamatadu, L13832, quasar_lord, alexanderhamilton124, mqoi_KOLA
Here is an elementary solution without using L'Hôpital's rule, Taylor's theorem, or extended reals:

Notice that
\begin{align*}
&\lim_{n \to \infty} n \ln\left(\cos\left(\frac{1}{n^x}\right)\right) = \lim_{n \to \infty} n\left(\cos\left(\frac{1}{n^x}\right) - 1\right) \cdot \frac{\ln\left(\cos\left(\frac{1}{n^x}\right)\right)}{\cos\left(\frac{1}{n^x}\right) - 1}\\=&\lim_{n \to \infty} -2n \sin^2\left(\frac{1}{2n^x}\right)
= \lim_{n \to \infty} -2n \left(\frac{1}{2n^x}\right)^2 \cdot \left( \frac{\sin\left(\frac{1}{2n^x}\right)}{\frac{1}{2n^x}} \right)^2=\lim_{n \to \infty} -\frac{n^{1 - 2x}}{2}.
\end{align*}Here we make use of the limits $\lim_{y \to 0} \frac{\ln(1 + y)}{y} = 1$ and $\lim_{y \to 0} \frac{\sin y}{y} = 1$ (Derivatives of $\ln(1+y)$ and $\sin y$ at $y=0$ respectively).

Thus we have
\[
\lim_{n \to \infty} n \ln\left(\cos\left(\frac{1}{n^x}\right)\right) = \lim_{n \to \infty} -\frac{n^{1 - 2x}}{2}=
\begin{cases}
-\infty & \text{if } 0 < x < \frac{1}{2}, \\
-\frac{1}{2} & \text{if } x = \frac{1}{2}, \\
0 & \text{if } x > \frac{1}{2}.
\end{cases}
\]Lemma. If $ \lim_{x \to a} f(x) = -\infty $, then $\lim_{x \to a} e^{f(x)} = 0 $.

Proof. Since $\lim_{x \to a} f(x) = -\infty $, for all $M>0$ there exists \( \delta > 0 \) such that
\[
0 < |x - a| < \delta \implies f(x) < -M.
\]Set \( M = -\ln \varepsilon \), where $\varepsilon\in(0, 1)$. There exists $\delta > 0$ such that
\[
f(x) < \ln \varepsilon \implies 0 < e^{f(x)} < \varepsilon.
\]So $\lim_{x \to a} e^{f(x)} = 0$, as desired. \(\blacksquare\)

Because of the continuity of \( e^x \), for \( x \geq \frac{1}{2} \),
\[
f(x) = \lim_{n \to \infty} \cos^n\left(\frac{1}{n^x}\right) = \lim_{n \to \infty} e^{n \ln\left(\cos\left(\frac{1}{n^x}\right)\right)} = e^{\lim_{n \to \infty} n \ln\left(\cos\left(\frac{1}{n^x}\right)\right)}.
\]And by the lemma, for \( 0 < x < \frac{1}{2} \),
\[
f(x) = \lim_{n \to \infty} \cos^n\left(\frac{1}{n^x}\right) = \lim_{n \to \infty} e^{n \ln\left(\cos\left(\frac{1}{n^x}\right)\right)} = 0.
\]
Therefore,
\[
f(x) =
\begin{cases}
0 & \text{if } 0 < x < \frac{1}{2}, \\
\frac{1}{\sqrt{e}} & \text{if } x = \frac{1}{2}, \\
1 & \text{if } x > \frac{1}{2}.
\end{cases}
\]It is clear that $f$ is discontinuous only at $\boxed{x=\frac{1}{2}}$ and that $\boxed{f(1/2)=\frac{1}{\sqrt{e}}}$. $\blacksquare$
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