ka April Highlights and 2025 AoPS Online Class Information
jlacosta0
Apr 2, 2025
Spring is in full swing and summer is right around the corner, what are your plans? At AoPS Online our schedule has new classes starting now through July, so be sure to keep your skills sharp and be prepared for the Fall school year! Check out the schedule of upcoming classes below.
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Which one of these functions are invertible? or both are invertible?
Let and be defined as
,
I think both of them are invertible, for its trivial for is where it gets confusing.
The condition for invertibility of a function according to Wikipedia is
>The function is invertible if and only if it is bijective. This is because the condition implies that is injective, and the condition implies that is surjective.
My friends whom I discussed this problem with say that isn't invertible because isn't surjective since never reaches values
since when I make in the domain it won't produce values for for , but I think that argument is wrong but I can't point it out. The only argument I could provide was
Is it necessary for surjectivity here? and if so why is it contradicting the defintion? where am i going wrong?
The question asks, "Is it invertible?", which I interpret as, "Will an inverse exist?"
YES, if I restrict the codomain to the range.
NO, if I keep the codomain as it is.
It never said anything about whether I can restrict the codomain or not, so I should be allowed to restrict it.
Restricting the codomain doesn’t change the actual input-output behavior of the function — it just changes how we describe the function.
The mapping rule remains the same. For example, if , then and , regardless of whether the codomain is or .
It is valid to restrict the codomain to the range when discussing invertibility.
This doesn't alter the nature of the function — it just makes the description precise and allows an inverse to exist by making the function surjective. Many textbooks do this without issue.
If restricting the domain or codomain changes the function, then technically those functions don't have inverses.
But we came up with functions like or precisely to define inverses — so maybe it's fair to come up with an inverse here too.
Yes, strictly speaking, changing the codomain defines a different function in the formal sense.
But since the input-output rule doesn't change, and the goal is to determine if an inverse exists, it's mathematically acceptable — and often necessary by many textbooks — to restrict the codomain to the range.
Since the question was to analyze invertibility, it makes sense to say the function can be made invertible in that context.
Y byMartin.s, Tip_pay, Talker, Zfn.nom-_nom, MS_asdfgzxcvb
As is periodic with the period , we can apply Lobachevsky integral formula Using the keyhole contour in the complex plane and evaluating residues (counter-clockwise, at )