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Contests & Programs AMC and other contests, summer programs, etc.
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k a March Highlights and 2025 AoPS Online Class Information
jlacosta   0
Mar 2, 2025
March is the month for State MATHCOUNTS competitions! Kudos to everyone who participated in their local chapter competitions and best of luck to all going to State! Join us on March 11th for a Math Jam devoted to our favorite Chapter competition problems! Are you interested in training for MATHCOUNTS? Be sure to check out our AMC 8/MATHCOUNTS Basics and Advanced courses.

Are you ready to level up with Olympiad training? Registration is open with early bird pricing available for our WOOT programs: MathWOOT (Levels 1 and 2), CodeWOOT, PhysicsWOOT, and ChemWOOT. What is WOOT? WOOT stands for Worldwide Online Olympiad Training and is a 7-month high school math Olympiad preparation and testing program that brings together many of the best students from around the world to learn Olympiad problem solving skills. Classes begin in September!

Do you have plans this summer? There are so many options to fit your schedule and goals whether attending a summer camp or taking online classes, it can be a great break from the routine of the school year. Check out our summer courses at AoPS Online, or if you want a math or language arts class that doesn’t have homework, but is an enriching summer experience, our AoPS Virtual Campus summer camps may be just the ticket! We are expanding our locations for our AoPS Academies across the country with 15 locations so far and new campuses opening in Saratoga CA, Johns Creek GA, and the Upper West Side NY. Check out this page for summer camp information.

Be sure to mark your calendars for the following events:
[list][*]March 5th (Wednesday), 4:30pm PT/7:30pm ET, HCSSiM Math Jam 2025. Amber Verser, Assistant Director of the Hampshire College Summer Studies in Mathematics, will host an information session about HCSSiM, a summer program for high school students.
[*]March 6th (Thursday), 4:00pm PT/7:00pm ET, Free Webinar on Math Competitions from elementary through high school. Join us for an enlightening session that demystifies the world of math competitions and helps you make informed decisions about your contest journey.
[*]March 11th (Tuesday), 4:30pm PT/7:30pm ET, 2025 MATHCOUNTS Chapter Discussion MATH JAM. AoPS instructors will discuss some of their favorite problems from the MATHCOUNTS Chapter Competition. All are welcome!
[*]March 13th (Thursday), 4:00pm PT/7:00pm ET, Free Webinar about Summer Camps at the Virtual Campus. Transform your summer into an unforgettable learning adventure! From elementary through high school, we offer dynamic summer camps featuring topics in mathematics, language arts, and competition preparation - all designed to fit your schedule and ignite your passion for learning.[/list]
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0 replies
jlacosta
Mar 2, 2025
0 replies
k i A Letter to MSM
Arr0w   23
N Sep 19, 2022 by scannose
Greetings.

I have seen many posts talking about commonly asked questions, such as finding the value of $0^0$, $\frac{1}{0}$,$\frac{0}{0}$, $\frac{\infty}{\infty}$, why $0.999...=1$ or even expressions of those terms combined as if that would make them defined. I have made this post to answer these questions once and for all, and I politely ask everyone to link this post to threads that are talking about this issue.
[list]
[*]Firstly, the case of $0^0$. It is usually regarded that $0^0=1$, not because this works numerically but because it is convenient to define it this way. You will see the convenience of defining other undefined things later on in this post.

[*]What about $\frac{\infty}{\infty}$? The issue here is that $\infty$ isn't even rigorously defined in this expression. What exactly do we mean by $\infty$? Unless the example in question is put in context in a formal manner, then we say that $\frac{\infty}{\infty}$ is meaningless.

[*]What about $\frac{1}{0}$? Suppose that $x=\frac{1}{0}$. Then we would have $x\cdot 0=0=1$, absurd. A more rigorous treatment of the idea is that $\lim_{x\to0}\frac{1}{x}$ does not exist in the first place, although you will see why in a calculus course. So the point is that $\frac{1}{0}$ is undefined.

[*]What about if $0.99999...=1$? An article from brilliant has a good explanation. Alternatively, you can just use a geometric series. Notice that
\begin{align*}
\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{9}{10^n}&=9\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{10^n}=9\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\biggr(\frac{1}{10}\biggr)^n=9\biggr(\frac{\frac{1}{10}}{1-\frac{1}{10}}\biggr)=9\biggr(\frac{\frac{1}{10}}{\frac{9}{10}}\biggr)=9\biggr(\frac{1}{9}\biggr)=\boxed{1}
\end{align*}
[*]What about $\frac{0}{0}$? Usually this is considered to be an indeterminate form, but I would also wager that this is also undefined.
[/list]
Hopefully all of these issues and their corollaries are finally put to rest. Cheers.

2nd EDIT (6/14/22): Since I originally posted this, it has since blown up so I will try to add additional information per the request of users in the thread below.

INDETERMINATE VS UNDEFINED

What makes something indeterminate? As you can see above, there are many things that are indeterminate. While definitions might vary slightly, it is the consensus that the following definition holds: A mathematical expression is be said to be indeterminate if it is not definitively or precisely determined. So how does this make, say, something like $0/0$ indeterminate? In analysis (the theory behind calculus and beyond), limits involving an algebraic combination of functions in an independent variable may often be evaluated by replacing these functions by their limits. However, if the expression obtained after this substitution does not provide sufficient information to determine the original limit, then the expression is called an indeterminate form. For example, we could say that $0/0$ is an indeterminate form.

But we need to more specific, this is still ambiguous. An indeterminate form is a mathematical expression involving at most two of $0$, $1$ or $\infty$, obtained by applying the algebraic limit theorem (a theorem in analysis, look this up for details) in the process of attempting to determine a limit, which fails to restrict that limit to one specific value or infinity, and thus does not determine the limit being calculated. This is why it is called indeterminate. Some examples of indeterminate forms are
\[0/0, \infty/\infty, \infty-\infty, \infty \times 0\]etc etc. So what makes something undefined? In the broader scope, something being undefined refers to an expression which is not assigned an interpretation or a value. A function is said to be undefined for points outside its domain. For example, the function $f:\mathbb{R}^{+}\cup\{0\}\rightarrow\mathbb{R}$ given by the mapping $x\mapsto \sqrt{x}$ is undefined for $x<0$. On the other hand, $1/0$ is undefined because dividing by $0$ is not defined in arithmetic by definition. In other words, something is undefined when it is not defined in some mathematical context.

WHEN THE WATERS GET MUDDIED

So with this notion of indeterminate and undefined, things get convoluted. First of all, just because something is indeterminate does not mean it is not undefined. For example $0/0$ is considered both indeterminate and undefined (but in the context of a limit then it is considered in indeterminate form). Additionally, this notion of something being undefined also means that we can define it in some way. To rephrase, this means that technically, we can make something that is undefined to something that is defined as long as we define it. I'll show you what I mean.

One example of making something undefined into something defined is the extended real number line, which we define as
\[\overline{\mathbb{R}}=\mathbb{R}\cup \{-\infty,+\infty\}.\]So instead of treating infinity as an idea, we define infinity (positively and negatively, mind you) as actual numbers in the reals. The advantage of doing this is for two reasons. The first is because we can turn this thing into a totally ordered set. Specifically, we can let $-\infty\le a\le \infty$ for each $a\in\overline{\mathbb{R}}$ which means that via this order topology each subset has an infimum and supremum and $\overline{\mathbb{R}}$ is therefore compact. While this is nice from an analytic standpoint, extending the reals in this way can allow for interesting arithmetic! In $\overline{\mathbb{R}}$ it is perfectly OK to say that,
\begin{align*}
a + \infty = \infty + a & = \infty, & a & \neq -\infty \\
a - \infty = -\infty + a & = -\infty, & a & \neq \infty \\
a \cdot (\pm\infty) = \pm\infty \cdot a & = \pm\infty, & a & \in (0, +\infty] \\
a \cdot (\pm\infty) = \pm\infty \cdot a & = \mp\infty, & a & \in [-\infty, 0) \\
\frac{a}{\pm\infty} & = 0, & a & \in \mathbb{R} \\
\frac{\pm\infty}{a} & = \pm\infty, & a & \in (0, +\infty) \\
\frac{\pm\infty}{a} & = \mp\infty, & a & \in (-\infty, 0).
\end{align*}So addition, multiplication, and division are all defined nicely. However, notice that we have some indeterminate forms here which are also undefined,
\[\infty-\infty,\frac{\pm\infty}{\pm\infty},\frac{\pm\infty}{0},0\cdot \pm\infty.\]So while we define certain things, we also left others undefined/indeterminate in the process! However, in the context of measure theory it is common to define $\infty \times 0=0$ as greenturtle3141 noted below. I encourage to reread what he wrote, it's great stuff! As you may notice, though, dividing by $0$ is undefined still! Is there a place where it isn't? Kind of. To do this, we can extend the complex numbers! More formally, we can define this extension as
\[\mathbb{C}^*=\mathbb{C}\cup\{\tilde{\infty}\}\]which we call the Riemann Sphere (it actually forms a sphere, pretty cool right?). As a note, $\tilde{\infty}$ means complex infinity, since we are in the complex plane now. Here's the catch: division by $0$ is allowed here! In fact, we have
\[\frac{z}{0}=\tilde{\infty},\frac{z}{\tilde{\infty}}=0.\]where $\tilde{\infty}/\tilde{\infty}$ and $0/0$ are left undefined. We also have
\begin{align*}
z+\tilde{\infty}=\tilde{\infty}, \forall z\ne -\infty\\
z\times \tilde{\infty}=\tilde{\infty}, \forall z\ne 0
\end{align*}Furthermore, we actually have some nice properties with multiplication that we didn't have before. In $\mathbb{C}^*$ it holds that
\[\tilde{\infty}\times \tilde{\infty}=\tilde{\infty}\]but $\tilde{\infty}-\tilde{\infty}$ and $0\times \tilde{\infty}$ are left as undefined (unless there is an explicit need to change that somehow). One could define the projectively extended reals as we did with $\mathbb{C}^*$, by defining them as
\[{\widehat {\mathbb {R} }}=\mathbb {R} \cup \{\infty \}.\]They behave in a similar way to the Riemann Sphere, with division by $0$ also being allowed with the same indeterminate forms (in addition to some other ones).
23 replies
Arr0w
Feb 11, 2022
scannose
Sep 19, 2022
k i Marathon Threads
LauraZed   0
Jul 2, 2019
Due to excessive spam and inappropriate posts, we have locked the Prealgebra and Beginning Algebra threads.

We will either unlock these threads once we've cleaned them up or start new ones, but for now, do not start new marathon threads for these subjects. Any new marathon threads started while this announcement is up will be immediately deleted.
0 replies
LauraZed
Jul 2, 2019
0 replies
k i Basic Forum Rules and Info (Read before posting)
jellymoop   368
N May 16, 2018 by harry1234
f (Reminder: Do not post Alcumus or class homework questions on this forum. Instructions below.) f
Welcome to the Middle School Math Forum! Please take a moment to familiarize yourself with the rules.

Overview:
[list]
[*] When you're posting a new topic with a math problem, give the topic a detailed title that includes the subject of the problem (not just "easy problem" or "nice problem")
[*] Stay on topic and be courteous.
[*] Hide solutions!
[*] If you see an inappropriate post in this forum, simply report the post and a moderator will deal with it. Don't make your own post telling people they're not following the rules - that usually just makes the issue worse.
[*] When you post a question that you need help solving, post what you've attempted so far and not just the question. We are here to learn from each other, not to do your homework. :P
[*] Avoid making posts just to thank someone - you can use the upvote function instead
[*] Don't make a new reply just to repeat yourself or comment on the quality of others' posts; instead, post when you have a new insight or question. You can also edit your post if it's the most recent and you want to add more information.
[*] Avoid bumping old posts.
[*] Use GameBot to post alcumus questions.
[*] If you need general MATHCOUNTS/math competition advice, check out the threads below.
[*] Don't post other users' real names.
[*] Advertisements are not allowed. You can advertise your forum on your profile with a link, on your blog, and on user-created forums that permit forum advertisements.
[/list]

Here are links to more detailed versions of the rules. These are from the older forums, so you can overlook "Classroom math/Competition math only" instructions.
Posting Guidelines
Update on Basic Forum Rules
What belongs on this forum?
How do I write a thorough solution?
How do I get a problem on the contest page?
How do I study for mathcounts?
Mathcounts FAQ and resources
Mathcounts and how to learn

As always, if you have any questions, you can PM me or any of the other Middle School Moderators. Once again, if you see spam, it would help a lot if you filed a report instead of responding :)

Marathons!
Relays might be a better way to describe it, but these threads definitely go the distance! One person starts off by posting a problem, and the next person comes up with a solution and a new problem for another user to solve. Here's some of the frequently active marathons running in this forum:
[list][*]Algebra
[*]Prealgebra
[*]Proofs
[*]Factoring
[*]Geometry
[*]Counting & Probability
[*]Number Theory[/list]
Some of these haven't received attention in a while, but these are the main ones for their respective subjects. Rather than starting a new marathon, please give the existing ones a shot first.

You can also view marathons via the Marathon tag.

Think this list is incomplete or needs changes? Let the mods know and we'll take a look.
368 replies
jellymoop
May 8, 2015
harry1234
May 16, 2018
Red Mop Chances
imagien_bad   21
N 26 minutes ago by giratina3
What are my chances of making red mop with a 35 on jmo?
21 replies
imagien_bad
Yesterday at 8:27 PM
giratina3
26 minutes ago
USAPhO Exam
happyhippos   1
N 37 minutes ago by RYang2
Every other thread on this forum is for USA(J)MO lol.

Anyways, to other USAPhO students, what are you doing to prepare? It seems too close to the test date (April 10) to learn new content, so I am just going through past USAPhO and BPhO exams to practice (untimed for now). How about you? Any predictions for what will be on the test this year? I'm completely cooked if there are any circuitry questions.
1 reply
1 viewing
happyhippos
Yesterday at 3:14 AM
RYang2
37 minutes ago
Distributing cupcakes
KevinYang2.71   16
N 44 minutes ago by plang2008
Source: USAMO 2025/6
Let $m$ and $n$ be positive integers with $m\geq n$. There are $m$ cupcakes of different flavors arranged around a circle and $n$ people who like cupcakes. Each person assigns a nonnegative real number score to each cupcake, depending on how much they like the cupcake. Suppose that for each person $P$, it is possible to partition the circle of $m$ cupcakes into $n$ groups of consecutive cupcakes so that the sum of $P$'s scores of the cupcakes in each group is at least $1$. Prove that it is possible to distribute the $m$ cupcakes to the $n$ people so that each person $P$ receives cupcakes of total score at least $1$ with respect to $P$.
16 replies
KevinYang2.71
Friday at 12:00 PM
plang2008
44 minutes ago
Good Mocks for STate
Existing_Human1   4
N an hour ago by huajun78
Hello Community!

I am wondering what are the best mocks for state, with solutions
4 replies
Existing_Human1
Friday at 11:52 PM
huajun78
an hour ago
Basic Maths
JetFire008   11
N an hour ago by Rice_Farmer
Find $x$: $\sqrt{9}x=18$
11 replies
JetFire008
Friday at 1:19 PM
Rice_Farmer
an hour ago
BOMBARDIRO CROCODILO VS TRALALERO TRALALA
LostDreams   58
N 2 hours ago by blueprimes
Source: USAJMO 2025/4
Let $n$ be a positive integer, and let $a_0,\,a_1,\dots,\,a_n$ be nonnegative integers such that $a_0\ge a_1\ge \dots\ge a_n.$ Prove that
\[
\sum_{i=0}^n i\binom{a_i}{2}\le\frac{1}{2}\binom{a_0+a_1+\dots+a_n}{2}.
\]Note: $\binom{k}{2}=\frac{k(k-1)}{2}$ for all nonnegative integers $k$.
58 replies
LostDreams
Friday at 12:11 PM
blueprimes
2 hours ago
2013 Stats Sprint #28
Rice_Farmer   13
N 2 hours ago by Rice_Farmer
Is there a better way than just partitioning casework bash this?
13 replies
Rice_Farmer
Mar 17, 2025
Rice_Farmer
2 hours ago
Chances at nats? Mathcounts
iwillregretthisnamelater   6
N 2 hours ago by ScoutViolet
Iowa, 38 on chapter, first in written and countdown and I’m just another person asking for nats chances.
6 replies
iwillregretthisnamelater
3 hours ago
ScoutViolet
2 hours ago
Menu
pascal_1623   10
N 3 hours ago by jkim0656
On a restaurant, there are three appetizers, and four main courses. How many different dinners can be ordered if each dinner consists of one appetizer and one main course?
10 replies
pascal_1623
Aug 22, 2005
jkim0656
3 hours ago
MATHCOUNTS Chapter Score Thread
apex304   109
N 3 hours ago by Mathematicalprodigy37
$\begin{tabular}{c|c|c|c|c}Username & Grade & Score \\ \hline
apex304 & 8 & 46 \\
\end{tabular}$
109 replies
apex304
Mar 1, 2025
Mathematicalprodigy37
3 hours ago
Competition Day Mindset
weihou0   27
N 4 hours ago by iwillregretthisnamelater
Hi! I'm taking the MATHCOUNTS State test on March 15. I know that there's probably not enough time left for significant skill improvement, so I wanted to ask about things I can do on competition day to help me be at my best. Most importantly, I'm curious about what mindset I should have during the test. Should I be confident and cocky, or more humble and negative? I'm just curious about what preparations prior to the test help the most. Thanks!
27 replies
weihou0
Mar 9, 2025
iwillregretthisnamelater
4 hours ago
Confusion about 2 counting strategies
Spacepandamath13   2
N 4 hours ago by mathelvin
What is the difference between PIE (Principle of Inclusion and Exclusion) and Complementary Counting?
2 replies
Spacepandamath13
4 hours ago
mathelvin
4 hours ago
1/a+1/b+1/c=6/7 - some fun
236factorial   10
N 4 hours ago by Jaxman8
If $\frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{b}+\frac{1}{c}=\frac{6}{7}$, where a, b, and c are positive integers, what is the smallest value of a+b+c?
10 replies
236factorial
Feb 11, 2006
Jaxman8
4 hours ago
Click to reveal hidden content
236factorial   13
N 5 hours ago by KF329
If there are a total of 951 hide tags on the basic forum, and 231 do not say "click to reveal hidden content". How many hide tags without the labelling "click to reveal hidden content" must be posted consecutively for the percentage of these hide tags to rise to 25%?

Please hide your answers :D
13 replies
236factorial
Aug 22, 2005
KF329
5 hours ago
Distributing cupcakes
G H J
G H BBookmark kLocked kLocked NReply
Source: USAMO 2025/6
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KevinYang2.71
407 posts
#1 • 3 Y
Y by ihatemath123, lpieleanu, RoyalPrince
Let $m$ and $n$ be positive integers with $m\geq n$. There are $m$ cupcakes of different flavors arranged around a circle and $n$ people who like cupcakes. Each person assigns a nonnegative real number score to each cupcake, depending on how much they like the cupcake. Suppose that for each person $P$, it is possible to partition the circle of $m$ cupcakes into $n$ groups of consecutive cupcakes so that the sum of $P$'s scores of the cupcakes in each group is at least $1$. Prove that it is possible to distribute the $m$ cupcakes to the $n$ people so that each person $P$ receives cupcakes of total score at least $1$ with respect to $P$.
Z K Y
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Countmath1
176 posts
#2 • 32 Y
Y by arfekete, Equinox8, balllightning37, Pengu14, EpicBird08, Ilikeminecraft, Awesomeness_in_a_bun, OronSH, KevinYang2.71, ihatemath123, lpieleanu, Amkan2022, BS2012, GrantStar, aidan0626, ninjaforce, tediousbear, the_math_prodigy, megarnie, mathfan2020, Sedro, LostDreams, GeronimoStilton, github, Marcus_Zhang, Toinfinity, elasticwealth, centslordm, DreamineYT, MathRook7817, Exponent11, williamxiao
how many partials for throwing up 2 mins into the test then leaving
Z K Y
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YaoAOPS
1497 posts
#3 • 3 Y
Y by peace09, KevinYang2.71, centslordm
Communicated to me by the orz orz orz jatloe.

Define the $P$ person's partitions as bubbles. Then we get a matching between the $n$ people $P$ and the first person's $n$ bubbles $B$. Connect a person to a bubble if they value that bubble as more than $1$, so one person is connected to all the bubbles on this bipartite graph $G \subset P \times B$. If Hall's condition is satisfied on these people, take that matching to win. Else, there exists some set $X$ of people such that they match less than $|X|$ bubbles. Remove that set, and repeatedly remove any set with $|N_G(X)| < |X|$. We must end up with some non-empty set of people $M$ such that $M$ and $N_G(M)$ have a matching, and no person in $P \setminus M$ matches any bubble in $N_G(M)$. In this case, we may take a matching on $M$ and $N_G(M)$, and remove this matching and the corresponding bubbles; since the remaining people aren't connected to these bubbles, this inductively preserves the score condition for them.
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by YaoAOPS, Friday at 1:13 PM
Z K Y
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HamstPan38825
8857 posts
#4 • 3 Y
Y by krithikrokcs, bjump, centslordm
This problem is ultra cool. Here is a solution communicated to me by (the goat himself) Lerchen Zhong. We perform a strong induction on $n$.

We call a continuous arc of cupcakes $\mathcal A$ delicious for person $P_i$ if the sum of $P_i$'s scores across the cupcakes in that arc is at least $1$. Consider a partition of the circle $\mathcal C$ into disjoint counterclockwise-oriented arcs $\mathcal A_1, \mathcal A_2, \dots, \mathcal A_n$ such that
  • $\mathcal A_1$ is the shortest arc starting at some cupcake $C$ that is delicious for someone;
  • for each $i$, $\mathcal A_i$ is the shortest arc starting at the first cupcake counterclockwise of $\mathcal A_{i-1}$ that is delicious for someone.
By the given condition, we can always perform such a partition. Fix these arcs $\mathcal A_1, \dots, \mathcal A_n$ now. For each arc $\mathcal A_i$, define the set $S_i$ to consist of all the people for which $\mathcal A_i$ is delicious. Then $S_i$ is nonempty for every $i$. In fact, this is all the information we need to solve the problem.

We call a complete family $\mathcal F$ of the sets $S_i$ a family of subsets such that there exists a positive integer $k$ with
  • the union $\left|\bigcup_{S_i \in \mathcal F} S_i\right| = k$;
  • a perfect matching from $P_1, \dots, P_k$ (indexed without loss of generality) to the sets in $\mathcal F$ (under the obvious condition).
If there exists a complete family $\mathcal F$, we can simply distribute the cupcakes in $S_i$ according to the matching and induct down. Otherwise, assume for the sake of contradiction that the result is not true; then there is no perfect matching between the $S_i$ and $P_i$, so by the converse of Hall's marriage lemma, Hall's condition should fail.

Thus, take a minimal $k \geq 2$ such that $|S_1 \cup \cdots \cup S_k| < k$. But then Hall's condition holds for $k-1$, i.e. we can take that perfect matching (which notably contains only $k-1$ elements in the union) and induct down. This completes the proof.

Remark: [Rambling] I think Hall's marriage lemma is a natural idea to apply here: you have some sort of condition that says that there are ``enough" cupcakes for each person individually, so there should be a perfect matching. I found the difficulty of the problem to be the splitting into arcs $\mathcal A_i$ then realizing that this is sufficient to solve the problem. While the later Hall arguments are nontrivial, they are also quite unexpected (you want some kind of perfect matching and also a tight union set to induct, and those just sort of come together!), and while I did write down the $\mathcal A_i$ partition, I didn't think much of it. So in a sense this problem has a similar pitfall as USAMO2: you have to be confident that once you do have the $S_i$ reformulation that this information is sufficient to solve the problem.
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by HamstPan38825, Friday at 1:24 PM
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plang2008
328 posts
#5
Y by
YaoAOPS wrote:
Communicated to me by the orz orz orz jatloe.

Define the $P$ person's partitions as bubbles. Then we get a matching between the $n$ people $P$ and the first person's $n$ bubbles $B$. Connect a person to a bubble if they value that bubble as more than $1$, so one person is connected to all the bubbles on this bipartite graph $G \subset P \times B$. If Hall's condition is satisfied on these people, take that matching to win. Else, there exists some set $X$ of people such that they match less than $|X|$ bubbles. Remove that set, and repeatedly remove any set with $|N_G(X)| < |X|$. We must end up with some non-empty set of people $M$ such that $M$ and $N_G(M)$ have a matching, and no person in $P \setminus M$ matches any bubble in $N_G(M)$. In this case, we may take a matching on $M$ and $N_G(M)$, and remove this matching and the corresponding bubbles; since the remaining people aren't connected to these bubbles, this inductively preserves the score condition for them.

How many points for getting up to the Hall’s graph, but with flawed, kinda flipped sign of hall’s: I said if there exists $|N_G(X)| > |X|$ we can remove them and induct down (which is false) otherwise (this case doesn’t even exist??) there exists a bubble not matched with anyone which we can induct down on preserving score. I missed the immediate match and win case and I think my second case is a subset of my first which is skullers. Like I’m pretty sure I have a solve if in my first case instead of matching and winning I match and consider the complement which eventually reduces to something like my second case.

This is what happens when you figure out how p6 works with 20 minutes left, not having any time to recall Hall’s correctly or write down detailed proof, since you misread p5 and made it harder than it asked for
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by plang2008, Friday at 3:01 PM
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USJL
530 posts
#6 • 4 Y
Y by ihatemath123, NaturalSelection, aidan0626, Exponent11
This is proposed by me and Cheng-Yin Chang. Probably the whackiest hall's I've ever done.
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Mathandski
720 posts
#7 • 9 Y
Y by peace09, YaoAOPS, aidan0626, megarnie, Sedro, KevinYang2.71, EpicBird08, balllightning37, LostDreams
In all seriousness though I was planning on reviewing hall but forgot so it is 100% my own fault I missed this. Posting this just because it aged humorously
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plang2008
328 posts
#8
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Mathandski wrote:
In all seriousness though I was planning on reviewing hall but forgot so it is 100% my own fault I missed this. Posting this just because it aged humorously

I learned Hall’s for the first time at Mathcamp but never did the provided hw so when the idea of Hall’s came to me on P6 I couldn’t formulate it fast enough because I just 1) have never applied it and 2) don’t have the condition ingrained in my head.

Maybe this is a sign to do your homework guys
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KevinYang2.71
407 posts
#9
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then theres me who read Diestel so i know Hall and Konig and Tutte and literally every matching theorem there exists
but i still couldnt solve this problem with 50 minutes left (i didnt try)
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by KevinYang2.71, Friday at 5:31 PM
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ihatemath123
3440 posts
#10 • 3 Y
Y by peace09, Mintylemon66, centslordm
FWIW, the posts in #3 and #4 gloss over the exact deletion process, and even though the Hall's lemma is the actual hard part of the proof, it's not a complete solution unless you explain how the deletion works too. Unless I'm going crazy, it's not just a trivial thing you can say in one sentence?

(Btw, I didn't solve this problem either. The solution was communicated to me by Andrew Carratu, who heard it from Lerchen I think. Or maybe Apra?)
Call the $s$ people who you are about to delete settled. For the people who aren't settled, you need to make sure they lose exactly $s$ groups in the deletion, and that each of their remaining groups still has value at least 1. For each of the $s$ settled people, delete the group they match with one at a time. Call the group we are about to delete $G$. By the hypothesis (this is what the Hall's was for), the $n-s$ unsettled people value $G$ at most $1$. In particular, none of these unsettled people will possess a group that is contained strictly within $G$. They either own two adjacent groups whose border lies inside $G$, or they own one group that contains $G$ (or is equal to $G$).
  • Suppose an unsettled person falls under the former case. Before, the two adjacent groups had a total value of at least $2$, and after deleting $G$, at most $1$ total value of cupcake was deleted from the union of those groups. Gluing the remains of those two groups together thus creates a new group with total value at least $1$, maintaining the condition. In particular, gluing these groups together decreases this unsettled person's total number of groups by one, which is what we want.
  • Suppose an unsettled person falls under the latter case. So, by deleting $G$, we put a hole in this unsettled person's group. Then, they simply glue the two remains of this group together with another group to the left. The value of this new group is at least $1$ (in fact, equality holds only when there the remains of the group totaled $0$ in value).
We obviously don't need to worry about regrouping the settled people. So, repeating this process $s$ times on each of the settled people will leave us with only the $n-s$ unsettled people remaining, each of whom have $n-s$ groups.

Notably, the deletion process is the only part of the problem where you use (a) the fact that the value of a group is determined by the sum of its individual cupcake values, and not some other function of the values, and (b) the fact that the groups are contiguous. It's important to find a maximal set of settled people to delete at once, since we take advantage of the fact that we don't need to regroup the settled people.
This post has been edited 5 times. Last edited by ihatemath123, Friday at 7:41 PM
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plang2008
328 posts
#13 • 1 Y
Y by eg4334
Ok here’s an attempt. I’m still crashing out over how many wrong statements I wrote about hall’s yet have the right idea all along


Call each person's consecutive group of cupcakes their bubbles. WLOG each bubble has a total score of $1$ by scaling down; clearly we can scale back up later.

Consider a specific person $P$. Let $X$ be the set of the other $n - 1$ people and $Y$ be the set of bubbles of $P$. Match a person with a bubble if the bubble's score for that person is greater than $1$. We have a bipartite graph.

Now we consider a reduction step. Suppose we give $P$ a bubble $B$, then $P$ is happy. If no other person $Q$ matches with $B$, then $Q$ is happy too, and since $B$ does not fully contain any bubbles of $Q$, so we can join the up to two bubbles of $Q$ that was split by $B$, preserving the score condition. If someone matches with $B$, then we may run into issues.

Now apply Hall's. If Hall's condition is satisfied, then we can easily match all $n-1$ people with a bubble and give $P$ their last bubble. This reduces the problem to a smaller $n$. If Hall's condition is not satisfied, this means there is some subset $S$ such that if the set of its matches is $N(S)$, then $|S| > |N(S)|$.

Thus consider $X \setminus S$ and $Y \setminus N(S)$. Since $|X| < |Y|$, clearly $|X \setminus S| < |Y \setminus N(S)|$ still. Additionally, note that no person in $S$ matches with any bubble in $Y \setminus N(S)$. Thus, we return to our original hypothesis.

Thus we can continue reducing until Hall's condition is satisfied (in which case we match and reduce), or until $X \setminus S = \emptyset$. In this case, clearly $Y \setminus N(S) \neq \emptyset$, so there is indeed an empty bubble. Apply the reduction step mentioned earlier. This concludes the reduction.

And of course, $n = 1$ is trivial.
This post has been edited 2 times. Last edited by plang2008, Friday at 11:08 PM
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S.Das93
706 posts
#14 • 1 Y
Y by elasticwealth
plang2008 wrote:
Ok here’s an attempt. I’m still crashing out over how many wrong statements I wrote about hall’s yet have the right idea all along


Call each person's consuective group of cupcakes their bubbles. WLOG each bubble has a total score of $1$ by scaling down; clearly we can scale back up later.

Consider a specific person $P$. Let $X$ be the set of the other $n - 1$ people and $Y$ be the set of bubbles of $P$. Match a person with a bubble if the bubble's score for that person is greater than $1$. We have a bipartite graph.

Now we consider a reduction step. Suppose we give $P$ a bubble $B$, then $P$ is happy. If no other person $Q$ matches with $B$, then $Q$ is happy too, and since $B$ does not fully contain any bubbles of $Q$, so we can join the up to two bubbles of $Q$ that was split by $B$, preserving the score condition. If someone matches with $B$, then we may run into issues.

Now apply Hall's. If Hall's condition is satisfied, then we can easily match all $n-1$ people with a bubble and give $P$ their last bubble. If Hall's condition is not satifisfied, this means there is some subset $S$ such that if the set of its matches is $N(S)$, then $|S| > |N(S)|$.

Thus consider $X \setminus S$ and $Y \setminus N(S)$. Since $|X| < |Y|$, clearly $|X \setminus S| < |Y \setminus N(S)|$ still. Additionally, note that no person in $S$ matches with any bubble in $Y \setminus N(S)$. Thus, we return to our original hypothesis.

Thus we can continue reducing until Hall's condition is satisfied (in which case we match and win), or until $X \setminus S = \emptyset$. In this case, clearly $Y \setminus N(S) \neq \emptyset$, so there is indeed an empty bubble. Apply the reduction step mentioned earlier. This concludes the reduction.

And of course, $n = 1$ is trivial.


0/7, you spelled consecutive wrong
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plang2008
328 posts
#15
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S.Das93 wrote:

0/7, you spelled consecutive wrong

well i’m already 0/7 for writing hall’s condition wrong
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S.Das93
706 posts
#16
Y by
hall's divorce
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v_Enhance
6869 posts
#17 • 5 Y
Y by H_Taken, Exponent11, aidan0626, ihatemath123, EpicBird08
Amazing problem. Here's my write-up of it. When working on it myself, I had the idea to match one person's arcs with Hall but didn't see the deletion argument.

Arbitrarily pick any one person --- call her Pip --- and her $n$ arcs. The initial idea is to try to apply Hall's marriage lemma to match the $n$ people with Pip's arcs (such that each such person is happy with their matched arc). To that end, construct the obvious bipartite graph $\mathfrak{G}$ between the people and the arcs for Pip.
We now consider the following algorithm, which takes several steps.
  • If a perfect matching of $\mathfrak{G}$ exists, we're done!
  • We're probably not that lucky. Per Hall's condition, this means there is a bad set $\mathcal{B}_1$ of people, who are compatible with fewer than $|\mathcal{B}_1|$ of the arcs. Let's imagine deleting $\mathcal{B}_1$ and those neighbors of $\mathcal{B}_1$, then try to find a matching on the remaining graph.
  • If a matching exists, terminate the algorithm. Otherwise, that means there's another bad set $\mathcal{B}_2$ for the remaining graph. We again delete $\mathcal{B}_2$ and the fewer than $\mathcal{B}_2$ neighbors.
  • Repeat until some perfect matching $\mathfrak{M}$ is possible in the remaining graph, i.e.\ there are no more bad sets (and then terminate once that occurs).
    Since Pip is a universal vertex, it's impossible to delete Pip, so the algorithm does indeed terminate with nonempty $\mathcal{M}$.
A cartoon of this picture is shown below.
[asy]usepackage("amssymb");
size(8cm); dotfactor *= 1.3; real w = 3; real eps = 0.4; label("People", (-w,10)); label("Arcs of Pip", (w,10)); filldraw(box((-w-eps, 9+eps), (-w+eps,7-eps)), invisible, red+1.2); filldraw(box((-w-eps, 6+eps), (-w+eps,5-eps)), invisible, orange+1.2); filldraw(box((-w-eps, 4+eps), (-w+eps,2-eps)), invisible, brown+1.2);
filldraw(box((w-eps, 9+eps), (w+eps,8-eps)), invisible, red+1.2); filldraw(box((w-eps, 7+eps), (w+eps,7-eps)), invisible, orange+1.2); filldraw(box((w-eps, 6+eps), (w+eps,5-eps)), invisible, brown+1.2);
draw((-w+eps, 9+eps)--(w-eps, 9+eps), red+dashed); draw((-w+eps, 7-eps)--(w-eps, 8-eps), red+dashed); draw((-w+eps, 6+eps)--(w-eps, 9+eps), orange+dashed); draw((-w+eps, 5-eps)--(w-eps, 7-eps), orange+dashed); draw((-w+eps, 4+eps)--(w-eps, 9+eps), brown+dashed); draw((-w+eps, 2-eps)--(w-eps, 5-eps), brown+dashed);
label((-w-eps, 8), "Bad set $\mathcal{B}_1$", dir(180), black); label((-w-eps, 5.5), "Bad set $\mathcal{B}_2$", dir(180), black); label((-w-eps, 3), "Bad set $\mathcal{B}_3$", dir(180), black);
draw((-w,1)--(w,1), deepgreen+1.3); draw((-w,0)--(w,0), deepgreen+1.3); label((0, 0.5), "Final perfect matching $\mathfrak{M}$", deepgreen);
for (int i=0; i<10; ++i) { dot((w,i), blue); dot((-w,i), blue); } label("Pip", (-w,0), dir(180), blue);
[/asy]
We commit to assigning each of person in $\mathcal{M}$ their matched arc (in particular if there are no bad sets at all, the problem is already solved). Now we finish the problem by induction on $n$ (for the remaining people) by simply deleting the arcs used up by $\mathcal{M}$.
To see why this deletion-induction works, consider any particular person $Q$ not in $\mathcal{M}$. By definition, $Q$ is not happy with any of the arcs in $\mathcal{M}$ So when an arc $\mathcal{A}$ of $\mathfrak{M}$ is deleted, it had value less than $1$ for $Q$, so in particular it couldn't contain entirely any of $Q$'s arcs. Hence exactly one endpoint among $Q$'s arcs was in the deleted arc $\mathcal{A}$. This causes two arcs of $Q$ to merge, and the merged value is \[ (\ge 1) + (\ge 1) - (\le 1) \qquad \ge \qquad 1 \]meaning the induction is OK. See below for a cartoon of the deletion, where Pip's arcs are drawn in blue while $Q$'s arcs and scores are drawn in red (in this example $n=3$).
[asy]
size(13cm); usepackage("amsmath"); pair O = (0,0); picture before; picture after;
real r = 1; real s = 0.9; real t = 0.65;
draw(before, arc(O, s, -20, 80), red+1.3); draw(before, arc(O, s, 100, 200), red+1.3); draw(before, arc(O, s, 220, 320), red+1.3);
draw(before, "Pip arc to delete", arc(O, r,  40, 140), blue+1.3); draw(before, rotate(-60)*"Pip arc", arc(O, r, 160, 260), blue+1.3); draw(before, rotate( 60)*"Pip arc", arc(O, r, 280, 380), blue+1.3);
label(before, "$\boxed{0.2}$", t*dir(120), red); label(before, "$\boxed{0.3}$", t*dir( 60), red); label(before, "$\boxed{0.8}$", t*dir(180), red); label(before, "$\boxed{0.43}$", t*dir(240), red); label(before, "$\boxed{0.57}$", t*dir(300), red); label(before, "$\boxed{0.7}$", t*dir(  0), red); label(before, "$Q$'s values", O, red);
draw(after, arc(O, s, -20, 200), red+1.3); draw(after, arc(O, s, 220, 320), red+1.3);
draw(after, rotate(-60)*"Pip arc", arc(O, r, 160, 260), blue+1.3); draw(after, rotate( 60)*"Pip arc", arc(O, r, 280, 380), blue+1.3);
label(after, "$\boxed{0.8}$", t*dir(180), red); label(after, "$\boxed{0.43}$", t*dir(240), red); label(after, "$\boxed{0.57}$", t*dir(300), red); label(after, "$\boxed{0.7}$", t*dir(  0), red); label(after, "$Q$'s values", O, red);
add(before); add(shift(3.2,0)*after);
[/asy]

Remark: This deletion argument can be thought of in some special cases even before the realization of Hall, in the case where $\mathcal{M}$ has only one person (Pip). This amounts to saying that if one of Pip's arcs isn't liked by anybody, then that arc can be deleted and the induction carries through.
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ihatemath123
3440 posts
#19
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@above in the deletion process, isn't it also possible for $Q$ to contain the deleted arc entirely? (so zero of the endpoints are in the deleted arc)
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plang2008
328 posts
#20
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ihatemath123 wrote:
@above in the deletion process, isn't it also possible for $Q$ to contain the deleted arc entirely? (so zero of the endpoints are in the deleted arc)

then you can just arbitrarily join that arc of $Q$ with a neighboring one (which is valid since $1 + (\geq0) \geq 1$)
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