Juggling concurrent cevian ratios (ft. Asymptote)
by math_explorer, Nov 10, 2010, 10:57 AM
So, today we'll be playing with the standard concurrent cevian figure.
![[asy]unitsize(.6cm);
pair pa=(0,0);
pair pb=(-2, -4);
pair pc=(6, -4);
pair pd=(0, -4);
pair pe=(3, -2);
pair pf=(-1.5, -3);
pair pp=(0, -3.2);
draw(pa--pb);
draw(pb--pc);
draw(pc--pa);
draw(pa--pd);
draw(pb--pe);
draw(pc--pf);
label("$A$", pa, N, black);
label("$B$", pb, S, black);
label("$C$", pc, S, black);
label("$D$", pd, S, black);
label("$E$", pe, N, black);
label("$F$", pf, NW, black);
label("$P$", pp, NE, black);[/asy]](//latex.artofproblemsolving.com/f/7/3/f73366420bb0c15d6b2dbcca4abbb5084aa2677c.png)
Yay a diagram.
totally-well-known
Ceva's Theorem

Hopefully you know that one. Because I'm too lazy to explain it. I think Menelaus is slightly more applicable in general, though. Which, although it can be explained with the above diagram if we pretend
doesn't exist, isn't really that much about the same thing. Anyway.
Gergonne's Theorem
which is not about the Gergonne point, even though both do kinda use cevians. But the Gergonne point is basically degenerate Brianchon. This is just area bash.

Well, I've already told you how to prove it. Area bash. Like
and go cyclic.
Van Obel's Theorem

which was used in the drawing of this particular figure.
Auxiliary line time! Basically, we reflect
and
about the center of
, and extend
to cut
and
at
and
.
![[asy]
unitsize(.6cm);
pair pa=(0,0);
pair pb=(-2, -4);
pair pc=(6, -4);
pair pd=(0, -4);
pair pe=(3, -2);
pair pf=(-1.5, -3);
pair pp=(0, -3.2);
pair ppp=(4, -4.8);
pair pdp=(4, -4);
pair px=(0, -4.266);
pair py=(0, -6.4);
draw(pa--pb);
draw(pb--pc);
draw(pc--pa);
draw(pa--pd--px--py);
draw(pb--pe);
draw(pc--pf);
draw(pb--ppp--pc);
draw(ppp--pdp);
draw(pc--py);
label("$A$", pa, N, black);
label("$B$", pb, S, black);
label("$C$", pc, S, black);
label("$D$", pd, NW, black);
label("$E$", pe, N, black);
label("$F$", pf, NW, black);
label("$P$", pp, NE, black);
label("$P'$", ppp, S, black);
label("$D'$", pdp, N, black);
label("$X$", px, SW, black);
label("$Y$", py, S, black);
[/asy]](//latex.artofproblemsolving.com/a/a/8/aa8407065425a65ff329749b6cfa095b9551f42f.png)
(I came up with these auxiliary lines myself, by the way, although I expect others have drawn them before.)
So
and
.
So we want to prove that
.
Interestingly:

so applying that we get

that is to say

which is easy because


which are equal by symmetry.
Although apparently area bash suffices nevertheless.
![[asy]unitsize(.6cm);
pair pa=(0,0);
pair pb=(-2, -4);
pair pc=(6, -4);
pair pd=(0, -4);
pair pe=(3, -2);
pair pf=(-1.5, -3);
pair pp=(0, -3.2);
draw(pa--pb);
draw(pb--pc);
draw(pc--pa);
draw(pa--pd);
draw(pb--pe);
draw(pc--pf);
label("$A$", pa, N, black);
label("$B$", pb, S, black);
label("$C$", pc, S, black);
label("$D$", pd, S, black);
label("$E$", pe, N, black);
label("$F$", pf, NW, black);
label("$P$", pp, NE, black);[/asy]](http://latex.artofproblemsolving.com/f/7/3/f73366420bb0c15d6b2dbcca4abbb5084aa2677c.png)
Yay a diagram.
totally-well-known
Ceva's Theorem

Hopefully you know that one. Because I'm too lazy to explain it. I think Menelaus is slightly more applicable in general, though. Which, although it can be explained with the above diagram if we pretend

Gergonne's Theorem
which is not about the Gergonne point, even though both do kinda use cevians. But the Gergonne point is basically degenerate Brianchon. This is just area bash.

Well, I've already told you how to prove it. Area bash. Like
![$[PBC]/[ABC]$](http://latex.artofproblemsolving.com/7/7/a/77ac13b51f3ea5b707069414e1f49524b5accc80.png)
Van Obel's Theorem

which was used in the drawing of this particular figure.
Auxiliary line time! Basically, we reflect








![[asy]
unitsize(.6cm);
pair pa=(0,0);
pair pb=(-2, -4);
pair pc=(6, -4);
pair pd=(0, -4);
pair pe=(3, -2);
pair pf=(-1.5, -3);
pair pp=(0, -3.2);
pair ppp=(4, -4.8);
pair pdp=(4, -4);
pair px=(0, -4.266);
pair py=(0, -6.4);
draw(pa--pb);
draw(pb--pc);
draw(pc--pa);
draw(pa--pd--px--py);
draw(pb--pe);
draw(pc--pf);
draw(pb--ppp--pc);
draw(ppp--pdp);
draw(pc--py);
label("$A$", pa, N, black);
label("$B$", pb, S, black);
label("$C$", pc, S, black);
label("$D$", pd, NW, black);
label("$E$", pe, N, black);
label("$F$", pf, NW, black);
label("$P$", pp, NE, black);
label("$P'$", ppp, S, black);
label("$D'$", pdp, N, black);
label("$X$", px, SW, black);
label("$Y$", py, S, black);
[/asy]](http://latex.artofproblemsolving.com/a/a/8/aa8407065425a65ff329749b6cfa095b9551f42f.png)
(I came up with these auxiliary lines myself, by the way, although I expect others have drawn them before.)
So


So we want to prove that

Interestingly:

so applying that we get

that is to say

which is easy because


which are equal by symmetry.
Although apparently area bash suffices nevertheless.