I downloaded Hearthstone
by djmathman, Jan 17, 2016, 4:34 PM
RIP MY LIFE
Solution
Gurucharan wrote:
Let
be a function such that for each
, distance between
and
is equal to distance between
and
. Prove that
(1)
is bijective
(2)image of a straight line under
is a straight line;
(3)image of a circle under
is circle






(1)

(2)image of a straight line under

(3)image of a circle under

Solution
Let
. It suffices to show that the three conditions work for
, for a translation trivially doesn't change any of the properties we wish to prove about
.
For each
, consider the parallelogram formed by
,
,
, and
. Remark that the distance between any of these two points is preserved under
, so it's not hard to show that the shape formed by
,
,
, and
is also a parallelogram. Furthermore, remark that by the definition of
, we have
. Therefore by parallelogram addition
.
Now consider the points
,
, and
, where
and
. Remark that these three points are collinear, and so by the equality case of the triangle inequality
,
, and
are also collinear. Furthermore,
implies
. Combining these yields
.
By the above few paragraphs, therefore, we have that
is a linear transformation. Let
be the matrix corresponding to
. It's well known that if
is length-preserving, then
is orthogonal. Since any orthogonal matrix is invertible,
has full rank, meaning that
is bijective, proving part (1).
I believe the fact that
is a linear transformation is enough to prove (2) and (3), but I'm not sure, so I'll prove something stronger about
. I will actually attempt to characterize all possible functions that
can take. Let
. Then
, so computation gives
This means we need
and
. Let
,
,
, and
for some
and
between
and
. Then
If
, then
and
, while in the other case
and
. Therefore
is of the form
which implies that
consists of a composition of a rotation and a reflection across the
-axis. From here parts b) and c) are trivial.



For each













Now consider the points











By the above few paragraphs, therefore, we have that







I believe the fact that





![\[I=QQ^{-1}=\begin{bmatrix}a^2+b^2 & ac+bd\\ac+bd & c^2+d^2\end{bmatrix}.\]](http://latex.artofproblemsolving.com/1/7/8/178962ebe627bd9d50ca4a90293c2ed6fcf3ec9b.png)










![\[ac+bd=\sin\alpha\sin\beta+\cos\alpha\cos\beta=\cos(\beta-\alpha)=0\quad\implies\quad \beta-\alpha=\pm\dfrac{\pi}2.\]](http://latex.artofproblemsolving.com/0/3/6/036164f0a9af1839ca47f7a40acffbaee5c0c27c.png)






![\[Q=\begin{bmatrix}\sin\alpha&\cos\alpha\\\pm\cos\alpha&\mp\sin\alpha\end{bmatrix},\]](http://latex.artofproblemsolving.com/f/3/8/f38ed558d66032ddfbe2bfaa30e04f19f78ca896.png)


This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by djmathman, Jan 17, 2016, 4:34 PM