Hutchinson's Theorem (a.k.a. how to draw pretty pictures)

by djmathman, Dec 10, 2016, 4:38 PM

Disclaimer: the things in this blog post are not mine; rather, they are the result of material covered over a span of four lectures in Analysis.

Theorem (Hutchinson, 1981) Let $X$ be a complete metric space, and suppose $f_1\ldots, f_n:X\to X$ are contractions. Then there exists a unique nonempty compact set $K\subseteq X$ such that \[K = \bigcup_{i=1}^nf_i(K).\]
Proof. For closed and bounded subsets $A$ and $B$ of $X$, define \[h(A,B) = \max\left\{\sup_{a\in A}\operatorname{dist}(a,B),\sup_{b\in B}\operatorname{dist}(b,A)\right\}\in[0,\infty)\]to be the Hausdorff distance between $A$ and $B$. It can be shown through a bit of work that this is actually a metric on the space of closed and bounded sets in $X$. Denote by $\mathcal{H}(X)$ the resulting metric space. Additionally, let $\mathcal{K}(X)\subseteq \mathcal{H}(X)$ denote the metric space of all compact subsets of $X$ when endowed with $h$ as a metric.

We first note a few properties of $\mathcal{H}(X)$. These were proven over the span of three days in class, and so I'll spare the majority of the details.
  • Suppose $f$ is Lipschitz. Then \[h(f(A),f(B))\leq K(f)h(A,B),\]where $K(f)$ denotes the Lipschitz constant of $f$.
  • If $A_1,\ldots, A_k$ and $B_1,\ldots, B_k$ are nonempty for some $2\leq k\in\mathbb{N}$, then \[h\left(\bigcup_{i=1}^k A_i,\bigcup_{i=1}^k B_i\right)\leq\max_{1\leq i\leq k}h(A_i,B_i).\]
  • If $X$ is complete, then $\mathcal{H}(X)$ is also complete. Similarly, if $X$ is totally bounded, then $\mathcal{H}(X)$ is also totally bounded.
  • $\mathcal{K}(X)$ is closed in $\mathcal{H}(X)$. Thus, combining this with the above, we get that $X$ complete $\Rightarrow$ $\mathcal{K}(X)$ complete.

With these facts in hand, the proof is actually surprisingly short. Note that $X$ complete implies $\mathcal{K}(X)$ complete. Furthermore, remark that if $K\subseteq X$ is compact, then $f_i(K)\subseteq X$ is also compact, so in particular $\cup_{i=1}^nf_i(K)$ is a finite union of compact sets and is thus also compact.

Define $\Phi:\mathcal{K}(X)\to\mathcal{K}(X)$ via $\Phi(K)=\cup_{i=1}^nf_i(K)$; by the previous paragraph, we know this function is well-defined. Let $K_1$, $K_2$ be in $\mathcal{K}(X)$, and for simplicity set $\gamma_i$ to be the Lipschitz constant associated to $f_i$ for $1\leq i\leq n$ (which we know is in the interval $(0,1)$ since each $f_i$ is a contraction). Then \begin{align*}h(\Phi(K_1),\Phi(K_2))&=h\left(\bigcup_{i=1}^nf_i(K_1),\bigcup_{i=1}^nf_i(K_2)\right)\\&\leq\max_{1\leq i\leq n}\left\{h(f_i(K_1),f_i(K_2))\right\}\\&\leq \max_{1\leq i\leq n}\left\{\gamma_i h(K_1,K_2)\right\}\\&= \left(\max_{1\leq i\leq n}\gamma_i\right)h(K_1,K_2).\end{align*}Note that $\max_{1\leq i\leq n}\gamma_i$ is the maximum of a bunch of real numbers less than $1$ and thus is itself less than $1$. Thus, $\Phi$ is also a contraction, and so the Banach fixed-point theorem guarantees the existence of a unique $K$ satisfying $K=\Phi(K)$. $\blacksquare$

Corollary 1. There is a simple way to generate this $K$: start with any set $A$, and repeatedly iterate $\Phi$ on it. Since $\Phi$ is a contraction, the (Hausdorff) distance between $\Phi^{(k)}(A)$ and $K$ tends to zero as $k\to\infty$.

Corollary 2. We can use this to generate fractals! Here are a few examples. On the left hand side of each picture is a set of contractions (or rather the results of applying these contractions on the unit square $[0,1]^2$ in $\mathbb{R}^2$); on the right hand side we get the result of applying $\Phi$ iteratively.

http://i.imgur.com/tmzA4Ix.png

http://imgur.com/mAs3yRy.png

http://imgur.com/hcUQrgB.png

http://imgur.com/IWOFjUg.png

Who ever knew math could be so pretty?

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5 Comments

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Math was always pretty, you didn't know that? :o

by First, Dec 10, 2016, 10:19 PM

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Should AoPSers take analysis?

by phi_ftw1618, Dec 11, 2016, 5:13 AM

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Yes, take North Korea Analysis! Zimbabwe Analysis! Chuck Norris Analysis!
~vlad

by BobThePotato, Dec 12, 2016, 4:31 AM

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(addendum: not a direct quote, just replacing all instances of "tst" from the original quote with "analysis". also replaced china with north korea on accident, oops)
Anyway, er... what prerequisites are there for analysis (in general)?

by BobThePotato, Dec 12, 2016, 4:33 AM

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I'm not sure if there's any sort of prerequisites for Analysis; you should probably be familiar with calculus and algebraic manipulations, but other than that I only think mathematical maturity is required. That being said, I think the inner depths of analysis (not just "hey look I can solve Putnam-style convergence questions now") are very hard to motivate and I'm not sure if one can really care about them without proper treatment. (I'm sure the same can be said for Group Theory, although rings and fields probably make up for a lot of the "relevancy" factor wrt Abstract Algebra. There's a reason it seems that more high schoolers know Algebra than know Analysis going into college.)
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by djmathman, Dec 12, 2016, 6:28 AM

by djmathman, Dec 12, 2016, 6:27 AM

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