The Man who Knew Infinity
by djmathman, May 30, 2016, 10:37 PM
was actually not a bad movie. It definitely didn't feature Oscar-worthy performances, but it did get emotional at times. The mathematics also seemed pretty legit, which makes sense considering that Ken Ono was involved with that aspect of the film.
Although I had to explain a bunch of things to my parents afterward OOPS
Solution
Solution
Although I had to explain a bunch of things to my parents afterward OOPS
Putnam and Beyond #314 wrote:
Let
be a positive integer and
a positive real number. Prove that ![\[\lim_{n\to\infty}\binom nk\left(\dfrac\mu n\right)^k\left(1-\dfrac\mu n\right)^{n-k} = \dfrac{\mu^k}{e^\mu\cdot k!}.\]](//latex.artofproblemsolving.com/f/f/7/ff77599329fa34c29de0ee0ba3526ea3f2475897.png)


![\[\lim_{n\to\infty}\binom nk\left(\dfrac\mu n\right)^k\left(1-\dfrac\mu n\right)^{n-k} = \dfrac{\mu^k}{e^\mu\cdot k!}.\]](http://latex.artofproblemsolving.com/f/f/7/ff77599329fa34c29de0ee0ba3526ea3f2475897.png)
Rewrite the limit as
I now claim that
If this is true, then the problem is solved: note that the limit of the first fractional expression is
since the numerator and denominator are polynomials in
with the same degree
, so fundamental properties of limits will finish the problem.
To do this, let
be the desired limit, and note that
Now L'Hopital's Rule gives
Raising both sides to the power of
gives the desired.

![\[\lim_{n\to\infty}\left(1 - \dfrac{\mu}n\right)^n = e^{-\mu}.\]](http://latex.artofproblemsolving.com/8/7/5/875144d3602a6e9be10f3a3cdd6194d020d38625.png)



To do this, let

![\[\ln L = \lim_{n\to\infty} n\ln\left(1 - \dfrac{\mu}n\right) = \lim_{n\to\infty}\dfrac{\ln(1-\mu/n)}{1/n}.\]](http://latex.artofproblemsolving.com/d/2/f/d2f69b78ae2934bc4ddc04324a9c01d4cd19b609.png)
![\[\lim_{n\to\infty}\dfrac{\ln(1-\mu/n)}{1/n} = \lim_{n\to\infty}\dfrac{\mu/n^2}{1-\mu/n}\cdot\dfrac{1}{-1/n^2} = \lim_{n\to\infty}\dfrac{-\mu}{1-\mu/n} = -\mu.\]](http://latex.artofproblemsolving.com/7/8/c/78c5567dbcaf1d8f30ae6b08e649507a2e743156.png)

Putnam and Beyond #318 wrote:
Prove that ![\[\lim_{n\to\infty}n^2\int_0^{1/n}x^{x+1}\,dx = \dfrac12.\]](//latex.artofproblemsolving.com/8/3/7/8372c7addb172f162a09aa8113e11bdbd11111d0.png)
![\[\lim_{n\to\infty}n^2\int_0^{1/n}x^{x+1}\,dx = \dfrac12.\]](http://latex.artofproblemsolving.com/8/3/7/8372c7addb172f162a09aa8113e11bdbd11111d0.png)
We restrict our attention to
.
First, remark that in the interval
,
. Furthermore, note that since
is always positive,
. This means that
, so
Finding a lower bound is similar. Remark that
, so
. Using similar logic, therefore,
This means that
for all
. Now take the limit as
. Since
and
as
, the left hand side approaches
. By the Squeeze Lemma, this means that the integral expression approaches
as well, which is what we wanted.

First, remark that in the interval
![$[0,\tfrac1n]$](http://latex.artofproblemsolving.com/6/1/2/612c2ff89ee29cf6b5041d08837f988008ae59c3.png)




![\[n^2\int_0^{1/n}x^{x+1}\,dx\leq n^2\int_0^{1/n}x\,dx = n^2\left[\dfrac12x^2\right|_0^{1/n} = \dfrac12.\]](http://latex.artofproblemsolving.com/3/6/a/36a5d2fd107d3487b917af58c33f41d0d54b950f.png)


![\[n^2\int_0^{1/n}x^{x+1}\,dx \geq n^2\int_0^{1/n}x^{1+1/n}\,dx = n^2\left[\dfrac{1}{2+1/n}x^{2+1/n}\right|_0^{1/n} = \dfrac{n^{1/n}}{2+1/n}.\]](http://latex.artofproblemsolving.com/6/7/2/6721e3dd763998553503f9cced38d17ae9d6c5bc.png)
![\[\dfrac{n^{1/n}}{2+1/n}\leq n^2\int_0^{1/n}x^{x+1}\,dx\leq\dfrac12\]](http://latex.artofproblemsolving.com/7/9/6/796f5ad6604e2f77c7b6391fe8458f6deba7b61f.png)







This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by djmathman, May 30, 2016, 10:38 PM